Showing the 12 most recent of 30 on this concept.

1. TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-02-AN1 markMCQ
   Q.A, $B_1$, $B_2$, $B_3$ are the events in a random experiment. If $P(B_1) = 0.25$, $P(B_2) = 0.30$, $P(B_3) = 0.45$, $P\left(\dfrac{A}{B_1}\right) = 0.05$, $P\left(\dfrac{A}{B_2}\right) = 0.04$, $P\left(\dfrac{A}{B_3}\right) = 0.03$, then $P\left(\dfrac{B_2}{A}\right) =$ (A) $\dfrac{6}{19}$ (B) $\dfrac{8}{19}$ (C) $\dfrac{12}{19}$ (D) $\dfrac{5}{19}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   This is a classic Bayes’ theorem problem: we are given prior probabilities for three mutually exclusive events and the conditional probabilities of A given each, and we need the posterior probability of $B_2$ given A. The answer is $\frac{6}{19}$, which corresponds to option (A).

   We start with the concept: Bayes’ theorem lets us “reverse” conditional probabilities. Here, we know $P(A \mid B_i)$ and want $P(B_2 \mid A)$. The key is that the $B_i$ form a partition of the sample space (they are the only possible “causes” of A), so we can compute $P(A)$ using the law of total probability, then apply Bayes’ formula.

   1. Identify the given data

      • $P(B_1) = 0.25$, $P(B_2) = 0.30$, $P(B_3) = 0.45$
      • $P(A \mid B_1) = 0.05$, $P(A \mid B_2) = 0.04$, $P(A \mid B_3) = 0.03$ The events $B_1, B_2, B_3$ are mutually exclusive and exhaustive (their probabilities sum to 1), so they form a partition.

   2. Compute the total probability of A

      By the law of total probability:

   $P(A) = P(B_1)P(A \mid B_1) + P(B_2)P(A \mid B_2) + P(B_3)P(A \mid B_3)$

   Substitute:

   $P(A) = (0.25)(0.05) + (0.30)(0.04) + (0.45)(0.03)$

   Calculate each term:

   • $0.25 \times 0.05 = 0.0125$
   • $0.30 \times 0.04 = 0.0120$
   • $0.45 \times 0.03 = 0.0135$ Sum:

   $P(A) = 0.0125 + 0.0120 + 0.0135 = 0.0380$

   3. Apply Bayes’ theorem for $P(B_2 \mid A)$ Bayes’ theorem states:

   $P(B_2 \mid A) = \frac{P(B_2) \, P(A \mid B_2)}{P(A)}$

   Plug in the numbers:

   $P(B_2 \mid A) = \frac{0.30 \times 0.04}{0.0380} = \frac{0.0120}{0.0380}$

   4. Simplify the fraction Divide numerator and denominator by 0.002 (or multiply by 1000 to clear decimals):

   $\frac{0.0120}{0.0380} = \frac{12}{38} = \frac{6}{19}$

   So $P(B_2 \mid A) = \frac{6}{19}$.

   Tip

   A common pitfall is forgetting to compute $P(A)$ correctly — students sometimes use only the numerator. Always check that the denominator is the total probability of A, not just one term.

   ✓Final answer

   The correct option is (A).

   ANSWER: A

2. TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-02-AN1 markMCQ
   Q.Let $P = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 3 \\ 4 & 5 & 6 \\ 7 & 8 & 9 \end{bmatrix}$ be a matrix. Three elements of this matrix P are selected at random. A is the event of having the three elements whose sum is odd. B is the event of selecting the three elements which are in a row or column. Then $P(A) + P\left(\dfrac{A}{B}\right) =$ (A) $\dfrac{221}{420}$ (B) $\dfrac{17}{21}$ (C) $\dfrac{21}{20}$ (D) $\dfrac{3}{2}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   We compute the probability that three randomly chosen entries sum to an odd number, then the conditional probability of that event given they lie in a single row or column, and add them. The result simplifies to $\frac{17}{21}$, which is option (B).

   ---

   Concept & Intuition

   The matrix has 9 entries. We pick 3 of them uniformly at random.

   • For event A (odd sum), we need to count how many triples have an odd total. Since odd/even depends only on parity, we first classify the 9 numbers by parity: 1,3,5,7,9 are odd (5 odds); 2,4,6,8 are even (4 evens). The sum of three numbers is odd iff we have an odd number of odd entries among them — i.e., 1 or 3 odds.
   • For event B (all in one row or one column), we count triples that lie entirely in a single row (3 rows, each row has 3 entries → 1 triple per row) or entirely in a single column (3 columns, each column has 3 entries → 1 triple per column). That gives $3+3=6$ triples.
   • Then $P(A/B)$ is the fraction of those 6 triples that also have an odd sum.

   We compute both probabilities and add them.

   ---

   Step-by-step

   1. Total number of ways to choose 3 entries from 9

   $\binom{9}{3} = 84.$

   2. Count triples with odd sum (event A)
      • Case 1: exactly 1 odd, 2 evens Choose 1 odd from 5 odds: $\binom{5}{1}=5$ Choose 2 evens from 4 evens: $\binom{4}{2}=6$ Total: $5 \times 6 = 30$ triples.
      • Case 2: exactly 3 odds, 0 evens Choose 3 odds from 5 odds: $\binom{5}{3}=10$ Total: $10$ triples.
      • So $|A| = 30 + 10 = 40$. Hence

   $P(A) = \frac{40}{84} = \frac{10}{21}.$

   3. Count triples in a row or column (event B)
      • Rows: 3 rows, each row has exactly 1 triple (all three entries). So 3 triples.
      • Columns: 3 columns, each column has exactly 1 triple. So 3 triples.
      • Total: $|B| = 6$. Hence

   $P(B) = \frac{6}{84} = \frac{1}{14}.$

   4. Count triples that are both in a row/column AND have odd sum (event $A \cap B$)

      Check each row and column for odd sum:

      • Row 1: $\{1,2,3\}$ → sum = 6 (even) → not in A.
      • Row 2: $\{4,5,6\}$ → sum = 15 (odd) → in A.
      • Row 3: $\{7,8,9\}$ → sum = 24 (even) → not in A.
      • Column 1: $\{1,4,7\}$ → sum = 12 (even) → not in A.
      • Column 2: $\{2,5,8\}$ → sum = 15 (odd) → in A.
      • Column 3: $\{3,6,9\}$ → sum = 18 (even) → not in A. So exactly 2 triples (row 2 and column 2) satisfy both. Hence $|A \cap B| = 2$.

   5. Conditional probability $P(A/B)$

   $P(A/B) = \frac{|A \cap B|}{|B|} = \frac{2}{6} = \frac{1}{3}.$

   6. Add the two probabilities

   $P(A) + P(A/B) = \frac{10}{21} + \frac{1}{3} = \frac{10}{21} + \frac{7}{21} = \frac{17}{21}.$

   Tip

   A common mistake is to compute $P(A/B)$ using the full sample space instead of restricting to B. Always remember: conditional probability uses only the outcomes in B as the denominator.

   ✓Final answer

   The correct option is (B).

   ANSWER: B

3. TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-11-FN1 markMCQ
   Q.The numbers 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13 are written on six distinct paper chits. If 3 of them are chosen at random, then the probability that the sum of the numbers on the obtained chits is divisible by 3, is (A) $\dfrac{7}{20}$ (B) $\dfrac{6}{20}$ (C) $\dfrac{5}{20}$ (D) $\dfrac{1}{5}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   The key idea is to classify each number by its remainder modulo 3, then count only those 3‑card combinations whose remainders sum to a multiple of 3. The probability is $\frac{7}{20}$, which corresponds to option (A).

   ---

   We have six numbers: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13.

   We pick 3 at random. The total number of ways is $\binom{6}{3} = 20$.

   We want the probability that the sum of the three chosen numbers is divisible by 3.

   Why classify by remainder?

   A number’s remainder modulo 3 determines whether it contributes 0, 1, or 2 to the total sum mod 3. The sum of three numbers is divisible by 3 exactly when the sum of their remainders is 0 mod 3. This turns a problem about specific numbers into a simple counting problem about remainder classes.

   ---

   Step-by-step

   1. Find each number’s remainder mod 3

      • $2 \equiv 2$
      • $3 \equiv 0$
      • $5 \equiv 2$
      • $7 \equiv 1$
      • $11 \equiv 2$
      • $13 \equiv 1$

      So we have:

      • Remainder 0: {3} → 1 number
      • Remainder 1: {7, 13} → 2 numbers
      • Remainder 2: {2, 5, 11} → 3 numbers

   2. Which remainder combinations sum to 0 mod 3?

      Let (r1, r2, r3) be the remainders of the three chosen numbers. We need $r_1 + r_2 + r_3 \equiv 0 \pmod{3}$.

      The possible triples (order doesn’t matter) are:

      • (0,0,0) — all three have remainder 0
      • (1,1,1) — all three have remainder 1
      • (2,2,2) — all three have remainder 2
      • (0,1,2) — one of each remainder

      No other triple works (e.g., (0,0,1) sums to 1, etc.).

   3. Count the number of 3‑card combinations for each case

      • (0,0,0): Only 1 number with remainder 0, so impossible. Count = 0.
      • (1,1,1): Only 2 numbers with remainder 1, so can’t pick 3. Count = 0.
      • (2,2,2): We have 3 numbers with remainder 2. Number of ways = $\binom{3}{3} = 1$.
      • (0,1,2): Pick 1 from remainder 0 (1 way), 1 from remainder 1 (2 ways), 1 from remainder 2 (3 ways). Total = $1 \times 2 \times 3 = 6$.

   4. Total favorable outcomes

      $1 + 6 = 7$.

   5. Probability

   $\frac{7}{20}$

   Tip

   A common mistake is to forget that (0,0,0) and (1,1,1) are impossible here because there aren’t enough numbers in those classes. Always check availability before counting.

   Watch out

   Do not just sum remainders of the original numbers — that would be meaningless. The modulo approach is what makes the problem simple.

   ✓Final answer

   The correct option is (A).

   ANSWER: A

4. TG EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-18-FN1 markMCQ
   Q.Two balls are drawn at random from a bag containing 5 black balls and 3 white balls. If the random variable X denotes the number of white balls drawn, then the mean of X is (A) $\dfrac{1}{2}$ (B) $\dfrac{5}{8}$ (C) $\dfrac{3}{4}$ (D) $\dfrac{3}{8}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   The mean (expected value) of the number of white balls drawn when picking two balls without replacement from 5 black and 3 white balls is $\frac{3}{4}$. The correct option is (C).

   ---

   We are drawing two balls without replacement from a small finite set. The random variable $X$ counts how many white balls appear. The mean (expected value) is just the average number of whites we’d see if we repeated the draw many times.

   Key insight: Instead of listing all outcomes and probabilities, we can use the linearity of expectation. Each ball drawn is like a “mini-experiment”: define an indicator for whether the first ball is white, and another for the second. The expected number of whites is simply the sum of the probabilities that each individual draw yields a white ball. This works even though the draws are dependent — expectation adds regardless.

   ---

   1. Define indicator variables

      Let $I_1 = 1$ if the first ball is white, $0$ otherwise.

      Let $I_2 = 1$ if the second ball is white, $0$ otherwise.

      Then $X = I_1 + I_2$.

   2. Find the probability the first ball is white

      Initially there are 3 white balls out of 8 total.

   $P(I_1 = 1) = \frac{3}{8}.$

   3. Find the probability the second ball is white By symmetry (or by the law of total probability), the chance the second ball is white is also $\frac{3}{8}$. Why? Because without any information about the first draw, the second ball is equally likely to be any of the 8 original balls. So

   $P(I_2 = 1) = \frac{3}{8}.$

   4. Apply linearity of expectation

   $E[X] = E[I_1 + I_2] = E[I_1] + E[I_2] = \frac{3}{8} + \frac{3}{8} = \frac{6}{8} = \frac{3}{4}.$

   Tip

   A common pitfall is to think the second draw’s probability changes because the first draw removed a ball. But without conditioning on the first result, the second draw still has a $\frac{3}{8}$ chance of being white — symmetry saves us.

   Watch out

   Do not compute the distribution of $X$ from scratch unless you enjoy extra work. The direct method (listing $P(X=0), P(X=1), P(X=2)$) gives the same answer but is slower. Here, linearity makes it a one-liner.

   ---

   ✓Final answer

   The correct option is (C).

   ANSWER: C

5. TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-09-FN1 markMCQ
   Q.If $P(A) = \dfrac{3}{8}$, $P(\overline{A}|B) = P(\overline{B}|A) = \dfrac{3}{5}$, then $P(A \cap B) + P(B) =$ (A) $\dfrac{21}{40}$ (B) $\dfrac{2}{13}$ (C) $\dfrac{3}{14}$ (D) $\dfrac{5}{12}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   We use the given conditional probabilities to set up equations for $P(A \cap B)$ and $P(B)$, then solve and sum them. The result is $\frac{21}{40}$, which corresponds to option (A).

   We are told:

   • $P(A) = \frac{3}{8}$
   • $P(\overline{A} \mid B) = \frac{3}{5}$
   • $P(\overline{B} \mid A) = \frac{3}{5}$

   We need $P(A \cap B) + P(B)$.

   ---

   Concept and intuition

   Conditional probabilities like $P(\overline{A} \mid B)$ relate the probability of the complement of $A$ given $B$ to the joint probability $P(\overline{A} \cap B)$. Since $P(\overline{A} \mid B) = \frac{P(\overline{A} \cap B)}{P(B)}$, we can write an equation linking $P(B)$ and $P(A \cap B)$. Similarly, $P(\overline{B} \mid A)$ gives a relation between $P(A)$ and $P(A \cap B)$. This lets us solve for the unknowns.

   ---

   Step-by-step solution

   1. Use $P(\overline{B} \mid A)$ to find $P(A \cap B)$ By definition:

   $P(\overline{B} \mid A) = \frac{P(\overline{B} \cap A)}{P(A)} = \frac{3}{5}$

   Since $P(\overline{B} \cap A) = P(A) - P(A \cap B)$, we have:

   $\frac{P(A) - P(A \cap B)}{P(A)} = \frac{3}{5}$

   Substitute $P(A) = \frac{3}{8}$:

   $\frac{\frac{3}{8} - P(A \cap B)}{\frac{3}{8}} = \frac{3}{5}$

   Multiply both sides by $\frac{3}{8}$:

   $\frac{3}{8} - P(A \cap B) = \frac{3}{5} \cdot \frac{3}{8} = \frac{9}{40}$

   So:

   $P(A \cap B) = \frac{3}{8} - \frac{9}{40} = \frac{15}{40} - \frac{9}{40} = \frac{6}{40} = \frac{3}{20}$

   2. Use $P(\overline{A} \mid B)$ to find $P(B)$ By definition:

   $P(\overline{A} \mid B) = \frac{P(\overline{A} \cap B)}{P(B)} = \frac{3}{5}$

   Now $P(\overline{A} \cap B) = P(B) - P(A \cap B)$. Substitute $P(A \cap B) = \frac{3}{20}$:

   $\frac{P(B) - \frac{3}{20}}{P(B)} = \frac{3}{5}$

   Multiply both sides by $P(B)$:

   $P(B) - \frac{3}{20} = \frac{3}{5} P(B)$

   Bring terms together:

   $P(B) - \frac{3}{5}P(B) = \frac{3}{20}$

   $\frac{2}{5}P(B) = \frac{3}{20}$

   So:

   $P(B) = \frac{3}{20} \cdot \frac{5}{2} = \frac{15}{40} = \frac{3}{8}$

   3. Compute the required sum

   $P(A \cap B) + P(B) = \frac{3}{20} + \frac{3}{8} = \frac{6}{40} + \frac{15}{40} = \frac{21}{40}$

   Tip

   Notice that $P(A) = P(B) = \frac{3}{8}$ here — a nice symmetry that emerges from the given numbers.

   Watch out

   A common mistake is to treat $P(\overline{A} \mid B)$ as $1 - P(A \mid B)$ incorrectly — that works only if you adjust carefully. Always go back to the definition $P(\overline{A} \mid B) = \frac{P(\overline{A} \cap B)}{P(B)}$.

   ✓Final answer

   The correct option is (A).

   ANSWER: A

6. TG EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-04-FN1 markMCQ
   Q.If $P\left(\dfrac{A}{B}\right) = \dfrac{3}{10}$, $P\left(\dfrac{B}{A}\right) = \dfrac{4}{5}$ and $P(A \cup B) = K P(B)$, then $\dfrac{1}{K} =$ (A) $\dfrac{40}{49}$ (B) $\dfrac{40}{43}$ (C) $\dfrac{100}{101}$ (D) $1$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   The key idea is to use the definitions of conditional probability to relate $P(A \cap B)$ to $P(A)$ and $P(B)$, then express $P(A \cup B)$ in terms of $P(B)$ alone. The result is $\frac{1}{K} = \frac{40}{43}$.

   We are given two conditional probabilities and a relation involving the union. The goal is to find $\frac{1}{K}$, where $P(A \cup B) = K P(B)$. This is a problem about linking conditional probabilities to the basic probability of events, so we start by writing down what each conditional means.

   Recall: $P(A/B) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}$ and $P(B/A) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)}$. These are not symmetric — each gives a different ratio. Our job is to use them to find $P(A)$ and $P(A \cap B)$ in terms of $P(B)$, then compute $P(A \cup B)$.

   1. From $P(A/B)$ we get $P(A \cap B)$ in terms of $P(B)$.

   $P(A/B) = \frac{3}{10} \quad\Rightarrow\quad \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)} = \frac{3}{10}$

   So

   $P(A \cap B) = \frac{3}{10} P(B).$

   2. From $P(B/A)$ we get $P(A)$ in terms of $P(A \cap B)$.

   $P(B/A) = \frac{4}{5} \quad\Rightarrow\quad \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)} = \frac{4}{5}$

   Hence

   $P(A) = \frac{5}{4} P(A \cap B).$

   3. Substitute the expression for $P(A \cap B)$ from step 1 into step 2.

   $P(A) = \frac{5}{4} \cdot \frac{3}{10} P(B) = \frac{15}{40} P(B) = \frac{3}{8} P(B).$

   So $P(A)$ is $\frac{3}{8}$ of $P(B)$.

   4. Now write $P(A \cup B)$ using the inclusion-exclusion formula.

   $P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A \cap B).$

   Substitute the expressions we have:

   $P(A \cup B) = \frac{3}{8} P(B) + P(B) - \frac{3}{10} P(B).$

   5. Combine the terms over a common denominator. The denominators are 8, 1, and 10. The LCM is 40. So:

   $\frac{3}{8} = \frac{15}{40},\quad 1 = \frac{40}{40},\quad \frac{3}{10} = \frac{12}{40}.$

   Therefore:

   $P(A \cup B) = \left( \frac{15}{40} + \frac{40}{40} - \frac{12}{40} \right) P(B) = \frac{43}{40} P(B).$

   6. Compare with the given relation $P(A \cup B) = K P(B)$. We have $P(A \cup B) = \frac{43}{40} P(B)$, so $K = \frac{43}{40}$. Hence

   $\frac{1}{K} = \frac{40}{43}.$

   Watch out

   A common mistake is to treat $P(A/B)$ and $P(B/A)$ as if they were the same, or to forget that $P(A \cap B)$ appears in both but must be expressed consistently. Always write the definition first.

   ✓Final answer

   The value is $\boxed{\frac{40}{43}}$, which corresponds to option (B).

7. TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-10-FN1 markMCQ
   Q.Three persons A, B, C planned to have a running race among themselves. If the probability that A wins the race is thrice that of B and the probability that B wins the race is $\dfrac{3}{2}$ times that of C, then the difference in probabilities of A and C to win the race is (A) $\dfrac{2}{3}$ (B) $\dfrac{1}{2}$ (C) $\dfrac{5}{14}$ (D) $\dfrac{3}{7}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   With $P(A)=\tfrac{9}{14},\ P(C)=\tfrac{2}{14}$, the difference is $P(A)-P(C)=\dfrac12$.

   Let $P(C)=p$. Then $P(B)=\dfrac{3}{2}p$ and $P(A)=3\,P(B)=\dfrac{9}{2}p$.

   The three probabilities sum to $1$ (one of them must win):

   $\frac{9}{2}p+\frac{3}{2}p+p=7p=1\ \Rightarrow\ p=\frac{1}{7}.$

   Hence

   $P(A)=\frac{9}{2}\cdot\frac17=\frac{9}{14},\qquad P(C)=\frac17=\frac{2}{14}.$

   The required difference is

   $P(A)-P(C)=\frac{9}{14}-\frac{2}{14}=\frac{7}{14}=\frac12.$

   ✓Final answer

   The difference in the winning probabilities of A and C is $\dfrac12$ — option (B).

8. TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-11-FN1 markMCQ
   Q.If 4 letters are selected at random from the letters of the word PROBABILITY, then the probability of getting a combination of letters in which atleast one letter is repeated is (A) $\dfrac{43}{170}$ (B) $\dfrac{19}{61}$ (C) $\dfrac{57}{184}$ (D) $\dfrac{29}{155}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   The multiset $\text{PROBABILITY}$ has $9$ distinct letters (with $B$ and $I$ each twice). Total $4$-letter selections $=183$; those with a repeat $=57$, so the probability is $\dfrac{57}{183}=\dfrac{19}{61}$, option (B).

   Letters of PROBABILITY: $P,R,O,B,A,B,I,L,I,T,Y$ — $11$ letters, $9$ distinct types, with $B$ and $I$ appearing twice each.

   Step 1 — Total number of $4$-letter selections (order does not matter).

   Count by repetition pattern:

   • All four distinct: $\dbinom{9}{4}=126$.
   • Exactly one repeated pair ($B$ or $I$) plus two other distinct letters: $2\times\dbinom{8}{2}=2\times 28=56$.
   • Two repeated pairs, i.e. $\{B,B,I,I\}$: $1$ way.

   $\text{Total}=126+56+1=183.$

   Step 2 — Selections with all distinct letters.

   $\dbinom{9}{4}=126.$

   Step 3 — Selections with at least one repeated letter.

   $183-126=57.$

   Step 4 — Probability.

   $P=\frac{57}{183}=\frac{19}{61}.$

   ✓Final answer

   The required probability is $\dfrac{19}{61}$ — option (B).

   ANSWER: B

9. TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-10-AN1 markMCQ
   Q.A card is drawn randomly from a well shuffled pack of 52 cards. If A is the event of getting a diamond card and B is the event of getting an ace card, then the probability that exactly one of the events among A and B to occur is (A) $\dfrac{15}{52}$ (B) $\dfrac{4}{13}$ (C) $\dfrac{17}{52}$ (D) $\dfrac{5}{13}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   The probability that exactly one of the events A (diamond) or B (ace) occurs is the sum of their individual probabilities minus twice the probability of both occurring. The result is $\frac{15}{52}$, which corresponds to option (A).

   We want the probability that exactly one of the two events happens — that is, either we draw a diamond that is not an ace, or we draw an ace that is not a diamond. This is a classic "exclusive or" (XOR) situation.

   Why this approach works:

   If we simply add $P(A) + P(B)$, we count the case where both occur (the ace of diamonds) twice. To get exactly one, we subtract that double-counted overlap once more than usual — hence $P(A) + P(B) - 2P(A \cap B)$.

   ---

   1. Identify the probabilities of each event individually.

      • There are 13 diamonds in a deck of 52, so $P(A) = \frac{13}{52} = \frac{1}{4}$.
      • There are 4 aces, so $P(B) = \frac{4}{52} = \frac{1}{13}$.

   2. Find the probability that both events occur (the intersection).

      • Only one card is both a diamond and an ace: the ace of diamonds.
      • So $P(A \cap B) = \frac{1}{52}$.

   3. Apply the formula for exactly one event.

      • Exactly one of A or B occurs means: $(A \text{ and not } B)$ or $(B \text{ and not } A)$.
      • The probability is:

   $P(\text{exactly one}) = P(A) + P(B) - 2P(A \cap B)$

   • Substitute the values:

   $\frac{13}{52} + \frac{4}{52} - 2 \cdot \frac{1}{52} = \frac{13 + 4 - 2}{52} = \frac{15}{52}$

   4. Check against the options.
      • $\frac{15}{52}$ matches option (A).
      • For completeness: $\frac{4}{13} = \frac{16}{52}$, $\frac{17}{52}$, and $\frac{5}{13} = \frac{20}{52}$ are all different.

   Tip

   A quick sanity check: The probability of exactly one is also $P(A) + P(B) - 2P(A \cap B)$. Many students mistakenly use $P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A \cap B)$, which gives "at least one" instead of "exactly one."

   Watch out

   A common pitfall is forgetting to subtract the intersection twice. If you only subtract it once, you get $\frac{16}{52} = \frac{4}{13}$, which is option (B) — the probability of at least one, not exactly one.

   ✓Final answer

   The correct option is (A).

   ANSWER: A

10. TG EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-18-FN1 markMCQ
    Q.A pair of dice is thrown twice in succession. The probability of getting prime numbers on both the dice in first throw and composite numbers on both the dice in second throw is (A) $\dfrac{1}{216}$ (B) $\dfrac{1}{16}$ (C) $\dfrac{1}{36}$ (D) $\dfrac{1}{9}$

    ›Reveal solutionSolution

    The key idea is to treat the two throws as independent events, multiply their probabilities, and note that each die has 3 prime numbers (2,3,5) and 2 composite numbers (4,6) — 1 is neither. The final probability is $\frac{1}{16}$.

    ---

    We start by recalling what “prime” and “composite” mean for the numbers 1 through 6 on a standard die.

    • Prime numbers on a die: 2, 3, 5 (three numbers).
    • Composite numbers on a die: 4, 6 (two numbers).
    • Neither: 1 (not prime, not composite).

    The problem asks: first throw — both dice show primes; second throw — both dice show composites. The two throws are independent, so we multiply probabilities.

    ---

    1. Probability of both dice showing primes in the first throw For one die, $P(\text{prime}) = \frac{3}{6} = \frac{1}{2}$. Since the two dice are independent,

    $P(\text{both prime}) = \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{4}.$

    2. Probability of both dice showing composites in the second throw For one die, $P(\text{composite}) = \frac{2}{6} = \frac{1}{3}$. So,

    $P(\text{both composite}) = \frac{1}{3} \times \frac{1}{3} = \frac{1}{9}.$

    3. Combine the two independent events The first throw and second throw are independent (the dice don’t remember previous rolls). Therefore,

    $P(\text{first both prime AND second both composite}) = \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{1}{9} = \frac{1}{36}.$

    Watch out

    A common mistake is to count 1 as composite — it is neither prime nor composite. Also, some forget that “both dice” means squaring the single-die probability.

    Tip

    Notice that $\frac{1}{4} \times \frac{1}{9} = \frac{1}{36}$ matches option (C). Always check whether the problem treats the two throws as independent — here they are, so multiplication is correct.

    ---

    ✓Final answer

    The correct option is (C).

    ANSWER: C

11. TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-13-AN1 markMCQ
    Q.If $X$ is a Poisson variate satisfying the condition $3P(x=2) = P(x=4)$ then $P(x=6) =$ (A) $\dfrac{162}{5e^6}$ (B) $\dfrac{108}{5e^6}$ (C) $\dfrac{324}{5e^6}$ (D) $\dfrac{648}{5e^6}$

    ›Reveal solutionSolution

    The key idea is to use the Poisson probability mass function $P(X=k) = \frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^k}{k!}$, set up the given condition $3P(X=2) = P(X=4)$, solve for $\lambda$, then compute $P(X=6)$ and match it to one of the options. The final result is $\frac{324}{5e^6}$, which corresponds to option (C).

    We start with the Poisson distribution. A Poisson random variable $X$ with mean $\lambda$ has probability mass function

    $P(X = k) = \frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^k}{k!}, \quad k = 0, 1, 2, \dots$

    The problem gives a relationship between $P(X=2)$ and $P(X=4)$. This lets us solve for $\lambda$, the only unknown parameter. Once we know $\lambda$, we can compute $P(X=6)$ directly.

    ---

    1. Write the given condition in terms of $\lambda$. We have $3P(X=2) = P(X=4)$. Substituting the Poisson formula:

    $3 \cdot \frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^2}{2!} = \frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^4}{4!}$

    2. Cancel the common factor $e^{-\lambda}$ (since $e^{-\lambda} > 0$ for any finite $\lambda$). This gives:

    $3 \cdot \frac{\lambda^2}{2} = \frac{\lambda^4}{24}$

    3. Simplify both sides. Left: $3 \cdot \frac{\lambda^2}{2} = \frac{3\lambda^2}{2}$. Right: $\frac{\lambda^4}{24}$. So:

    $\frac{3\lambda^2}{2} = \frac{\lambda^4}{24}$

    4. Solve for $\lambda$. Multiply both sides by 24:

    $24 \cdot \frac{3\lambda^2}{2} = \lambda^4 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 36\lambda^2 = \lambda^4$

    Rearranging:

    $\lambda^4 - 36\lambda^2 = 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad \lambda^2(\lambda^2 - 36) = 0$

    Since $\lambda > 0$ for a Poisson distribution (mean cannot be zero if we have nonzero probabilities for $k=2,4$), we take $\lambda^2 = 36$, so $\lambda = 6$.

    Tip

    A common mistake is to forget that $\lambda$ must be positive. The solution $\lambda = 0$ would make all probabilities zero except $P(X=0)=1$, which doesn't satisfy the given equation meaningfully.

    5. Now compute $P(X=6)$ with $\lambda = 6$.

    $P(X=6) = \frac{e^{-6} \cdot 6^6}{6!}$

    6. Simplify $6^6$ and $6!$. $6^6 = 46656$ (or keep as $6^6$). $6! = 720$. So:

    $P(X=6) = \frac{e^{-6} \cdot 46656}{720}$

    7. Reduce the fraction. Divide numerator and denominator by 144 (since $46656 \div 144 = 324$ and $720 \div 144 = 5$):

    $P(X=6) = \frac{324}{5} \cdot e^{-6} = \frac{324}{5e^6}$

    Watch out

    Watch out: $e^{-6}$ is often written as $1/e^6$, so the answer is $\frac{324}{5e^6}$, not $\frac{324}{5}e^6$ or something similar.

    8. Match with the options. The expression $\frac{324}{5e^6}$ corresponds exactly to option (C).

    ✓Final answer

    The correct option is (C).

    ANSWER: C

12. TG EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-04-FN1 markMCQ
    Q.If the probability that an individual will suffer a bad reaction from an injection is 0.001, then the probability that out of 2000 individuals, exactly 3 individuals suffer a bad reaction is (A) $\dfrac{4}{3e^2}$ (B) $\dfrac{2}{e^2}$ (C) $\dfrac{2}{3e^2}$ (D) $\dfrac{4}{5e^2}$

    ›Reveal solutionSolution

    This is a rare-event problem where $n=2000$ is large and $p=0.001$ is small, so the Poisson approximation to the binomial distribution applies. The probability that exactly 3 individuals suffer a reaction is $\boxed{\dfrac{4}{3e^2}}$, which corresponds to option (A).

    The key insight here is that we are dealing with a binomial experiment: 2000 independent trials, each with a constant probability of "success" (bad reaction) $p = 0.001$. The exact probability of exactly 3 successes would be $\binom{2000}{3} (0.001)^3 (0.999)^{1997}$. That expression is perfectly correct but computationally messy — and more importantly, it misses the conceptual point.

    When $n$ is large and $p$ is very small, the binomial distribution is well approximated by the Poisson distribution with parameter $\lambda = np$. This is the classic "rare event" scenario. The Poisson distribution gives us a clean, closed-form answer that matches one of the given options exactly.

    Let's work through it step by step.

    1. Identify the exact binomial probability. For $n = 2000$, $p = 0.001$, the probability of exactly $k = 3$ reactions is

    $P(X = 3) = \binom{2000}{3} (0.001)^3 (0.999)^{1997}.$

    This is the truth, but we won't evaluate it directly — the numbers are unwieldy and the exam expects the Poisson approximation.

    2. Compute the Poisson parameter $\lambda$.

    $\lambda = np = 2000 \times 0.001 = 2.$

    This $\lambda = 2$ is the average number of bad reactions expected in 2000 individuals.

    3. Apply the Poisson approximation. For a Poisson random variable $Y$ with mean $\lambda$,

    $P(Y = k) = \frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^k}{k!}.$

    Here $\lambda = 2$ and $k = 3$, so

    $P(Y = 3) = \frac{e^{-2} \cdot 2^3}{3!} = \frac{e^{-2} \cdot 8}{6} = \frac{8}{6e^2} = \frac{4}{3e^2}.$

    4. Check the match with the options. The result $\frac{4}{3e^2}$ is exactly option (A). The other options differ in the numerator or denominator, so there is no ambiguity.

    Watch out

    A common mistake is to forget the factorial in the denominator. $3! = 6$, not $3$ or $2$. Also, note that $e^{-2}$ is written as $\frac{1}{e^2}$, so the final expression is $\frac{4}{3e^2}$, not $\frac{4}{3e}$ or anything else.

    Tip

    The Poisson approximation works beautifully here because $n$ is large ($2000$) and $p$ is small ($0.001$), with $np = 2$ being moderate. A rule of thumb: if $n \ge 20$ and $p \le 0.05$, the approximation is good; here it's excellent.

    ✓Final answer

    The probability is $\boxed{\dfrac{4}{3e^2}}$, which is option (A).