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Worked Examples · Example 5.4

Q.(a) Magnetic field lines show the direction (at every point) along which a small magnetised needle aligns (at the point). Do the magnetic field lines also represent the lines of force on a moving charged particle at every point?

(b) If magnetic monopoles existed, how would the Gauss's law of magnetism be modified?
(c) Does a bar magnet exert a torque on itself due to its own field? Does one element of a current-carrying wire exert a force on another element of the same wire?
(d) Magnetic field arises due to charges in motion. Can a system have magnetic moments even though its net charge is zero?
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Magnetic field lines indicate the direction a compass needle points, not the force on a moving charge (which depends on velocity). Gauss’s law would include a magnetic monopole term. A bar magnet does not torque itself, but current-carrying wire elements do exert forces on each other. A neutral system can have net magnetic moment.


(a) Magnetic field lines are defined as curves whose tangent at any point gives the direction of the magnetic field B⃗\vec{B} at that point. A small magnetised needle (like a compass) aligns with B⃗\vec{B}, so the field lines indeed show the direction the needle points.

But the force on a moving charged particle is given by the Lorentz force: F⃗=q(v⃗×B⃗)\vec{F} = q(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}). This force is always perpendicular to both v⃗\vec{v} and B⃗\vec{B}, and its direction depends on the velocity. The field line itself gives only the direction of B⃗\vec{B}, not the force direction — because the force also depends on v⃗\vec{v}. So no, magnetic field lines do not represent lines of force on a moving charged particle. They are not analogous to electric field lines in that sense.

Watch out

A common mistake is to think magnetic field lines are "force lines" like electric field lines. For a stationary charge, electric field lines give the force direction. For a moving charge in a magnetic field, the force is perpendicular to the field line, not along it.


(b) Gauss's law for magnetism in its present form states that the net magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero:

∮B⃗⋅dA⃗=0\oint \vec{B} \cdot d\vec{A} = 0

This reflects the fact that magnetic monopoles do not exist — magnetic field lines form closed loops.

If magnetic monopoles existed, they would act as sources and sinks of magnetic field, analogous to electric charges for the electric field. Gauss's law would then become:

∮B⃗⋅dA⃗=μ0qm\oint \vec{B} \cdot d\vec{A} = \mu_0 q_m

where qmq_m is the net magnetic monopole charge enclosed by the surface, and μ0\mu_0 is the permeability of free space. This is the direct magnetic analogue of Gauss's law for electricity.

Modified Gauss's law for magnetism (with monopoles):

∮B⃗⋅dA⃗=μ0qm\oint \vec{B} \cdot d\vec{A} = \mu_0 q_m


(c) A bar magnet does not exert a net torque on itself due to its own field. The internal forces between the north and south poles of the magnet are internal to the system, and by Newton's third law, they cancel in pairs. The net torque from the magnet's own field on itself is zero. The magnet can only experience a torque from an external magnetic field.

For a current-carrying wire, the situation is different. Each current element Idl⃗I d\vec{l} produces a magnetic field, and that field exerts a force on other current elements in the same wire. These are internal forces between different parts of the wire. They do not cancel to zero in general — for example, in a bent wire, different segments exert forces on each other, leading to mechanical stress. So yes, one element of a current-carrying wire can exert a force on another element of the same wire. …

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