Q.If a consumer has monotonic preferences, can she be indifferent between the bundles and ?
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Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →Monotonic preferences mean more of at least one good is always preferred, so a bundle with more of both goods cannot be indifferent to a bundle with less of both. Since has strictly more of both goods than , indifference is impossible.
The core idea here is what monotonic preferences actually imply about a consumer’s ranking of bundles. In microeconomics, monotonicity means that if you increase the quantity of at least one good (without decreasing any other), the consumer’s satisfaction strictly increases. In other words, “more is always better” — there is no point of satiation within the relevant range.
Now look at the two bundles: and . The first bundle has 10 units of good 1 and 8 units of good 2. The second has 8 units of good 1 and 6 units of good 2. Comparing them, the first bundle contains more of both goods — 2 more units of good 1 and 2 more units of good 2.
A common mistake is to think that if a consumer likes both goods, she might still be indifferent if the extra amount is “small.” But monotonic preferences are strict: any increase in any good (holding others constant) raises utility. Here, both goods increase, so utility must rise — indifference is ruled out. …
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