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NCERT Exemplar · Q78

Q.State whether True or False: Trigonometric and inverse-trigonometric functions are differentiable in their respective domains.

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The statement is False: trigonometric functions are differentiable throughout their domains, but inverse-trigonometric functions are not differentiable at the endpoints of their closed domains (e.g. sin⁡−1x\sin^{-1}x at x=±1x=\pm1).

What the statement claims

It asserts that both the trigonometric functions and their inverses are differentiable everywhere in their respective domains. To judge it, we test each family at every point of its domain — including any boundary points that belong to the domain.

The trigonometric functions are fine

For sin⁡x\sin x, cos⁡x\cos x, tan⁡x\tan x, cot⁡x\cot x, sec⁡x\sec x, csc⁡x\csc x, the derivative exists at every point where the function is defined:

ddxsin⁡x=cos⁡x,ddxtan⁡x=sec⁡2x, …\frac{d}{dx}\sin x=\cos x,\quad \frac{d}{dx}\tan x=\sec^2x,\ \dots

The places where, say, tan⁡x\tan x misbehaves (x=π2x=\tfrac{\pi}{2}) are not in its domain, so they don't count against it. So for the ordinary trig functions the claim is true.

The inverse-trigonometric functions break the claim

The trouble is the endpoints of the closed domains:

  • sin⁡−1x\sin^{-1}x and cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x have domain [−1,1][-1,1].
  • sec⁡−1x\sec^{-1}x and csc⁡−1x\csc^{-1}x have domain (−∞,−1]∪[1,∞)(-\infty,-1]\cup[1,\infty).

Look at the derivative of sin⁡−1x\sin^{-1}x:

ddxsin⁡−1x=11−x2.\frac{d}{dx}\sin^{-1}x=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}.

As x→±1x\to\pm1, the denominator 1−x2→0\sqrt{1-x^2}\to 0, so the derivative →∞\to\infty. Geometrically the graph of sin⁡−1x\sin^{-1}x has a vertical tangent at x=±1x=\pm1, so no finite derivative exists there. Yet x=±1x=\pm1 are points of the domain [−1,1][-1,1]. The same happens for cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x at x=±1x=\pm1, and for sec⁡−1x,csc⁡−1x\sec^{-1}x,\csc^{-1}x at x=±1x=\pm1. …

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