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Miscellaneous Exercise · Q36

Q.Prove that ∫0π/42tan⁡3x dx=1−log⁡2\int_{0}^{\pi/4}2\tan^3 x\,dx=1-\log 2

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The integral ∫0π/42tan⁡3x dx\int_{0}^{\pi/4}2\tan^3 x\,dx simplifies to 1−log⁡21-\log 2 by rewriting tan⁡3x=tan⁡x(sec⁡2x−1)\tan^3 x = \tan x (\sec^2 x - 1), splitting into two integrals, and using substitution u=tan⁡xu = \tan x for the first part while the second part is a standard logarithmic integral.

Why This Approach Works

The integrand 2tan⁡3x2\tan^3 x looks tricky because tan⁡3x\tan^3 x doesn't have a simple antiderivative directly. But here's the key insight: tan⁡3x=tan⁡x⋅tan⁡2x\tan^3 x = \tan x \cdot \tan^2 x, and tan⁡2x=sec⁡2x−1\tan^2 x = \sec^2 x - 1 (from the Pythagorean identity). This rewrites the integral into two pieces:

  • One part involves tan⁡xsec⁡2x\tan x \sec^2 x, which is a perfect candidate for uu-substitution with u=tan⁡xu = \tan x (since du=sec⁡2x dxdu = \sec^2 x\,dx).
  • The other part is just tan⁡x\tan x, whose antiderivative is −log⁡∣cos⁡x∣-\log|\cos x|.

This decomposition turns a messy trigonometric integral into clean, elementary forms.

Step-by-Step Solution

1. Rewrite the integrand using the identity.

Recall: tan⁡2x=sec⁡2x−1\tan^2 x = \sec^2 x - 1. So:

2tan⁡3x=2tan⁡x⋅tan⁡2x=2tan⁡x(sec⁡2x−1)=2tan⁡xsec⁡2x−2tan⁡x.2\tan^3 x = 2\tan x \cdot \tan^2 x = 2\tan x (\sec^2 x - 1) = 2\tan x \sec^2 x - 2\tan x.

Thus the integral becomes:

∫0π/42tan⁡3x dx=∫0π/42tan⁡xsec⁡2x dx−∫0π/42tan⁡x dx.\int_{0}^{\pi/4} 2\tan^3 x\,dx = \int_{0}^{\pi/4} 2\tan x \sec^2 x\,dx - \int_{0}^{\pi/4} 2\tan x\,dx.

2. Handle the first integral: I1=∫2tan⁡xsec⁡2x dxI_1 = \int 2\tan x \sec^2 x\,dx.

Let u=tan⁡xu = \tan x. Then du=sec⁡2x dxdu = \sec^2 x\,dx. The factor 22 is constant, so:

∫2tan⁡xsec⁡2x dx=2∫u du=2⋅u22=u2=tan⁡2x.\int 2\tan x \sec^2 x\,dx = 2\int u\,du = 2 \cdot \frac{u^2}{2} = u^2 = \tan^2 x.

No constant needed since we'll evaluate definite limits. So:

I1=[tan⁡2x]0π/4=tan⁡2(π4)−tan⁡2(0)=12−0=1.I_1 = \left[\tan^2 x\right]_{0}^{\pi/4} = \tan^2\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right) - \tan^2(0) = 1^2 - 0 = 1.

Tip

The substitution u=tan⁡xu = \tan x works because sec⁡2x\sec^2 x appears as the derivative — a classic pattern for integrals of the form ∫f(tan⁡x)sec⁡2x dx\int f(\tan x) \sec^2 x\,dx.

3. Handle the second integral: I2=∫2tan⁡x dxI_2 = \int 2\tan x\,dx.

We know ∫tan⁡x dx=−log⁡∣cos⁡x∣+C\int \tan x\,dx = -\log|\cos x| + C. So:

∫2tan⁡x dx=−2log⁡∣cos⁡x∣+C.\int 2\tan x\,dx = -2\log|\cos x| + C. …

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