Q.Prove that the function f:R→R defined by f(x)=2x+5 is one-one.
Concept understanding — One One Function
One-One (Injective) Function
Think of taking attendance by unique roll numbers: call a number and exactly one student responds — never two sharing a number. That is a one-one function: different inputs always land on different outputs.
The idea
A function is a machine turning inputs into outputs. It is one-one (or injective) if it never reuses an output — two different inputs can never produce the same result.
- f(x)=x+1 is one-one: if x1=x2 then x1+1=x2+1.
- g(x)=x2 on R is not one-one, because g(2)=g(−2)=4.
Precise definition
f:A→B is one-one if for all x1,x2∈A,
x1=x2⟹f(x1)=f(x2).
The contrapositive is usually easier in proofs:
f(x1)=f(x2)⟹x1=x2.
"If the outputs are equal, the inputs must have been equal."
How to check
- Horizontal line test (graphs): if any horizontal line meets the graph more than once, the function is not one-one, because that line marks one output shared by several inputs.
- Algebraic test: assume f(x1)=f(x2) and try to deduce x1=x2; succeed and it is one-one, find a counterexample and it is not.
A strictly increasing or strictly decreasing function is automatically one-one. So a decreasing function like f(x)=−x is one-one too — being one-one is about no repeated outputs, not about going up.
Why it matters
Injectivity is what lets a function be reversed: if no output is repeated, each output points back to a single input. This is the first requirement for an inverse — a function must be one-one and onto for its inverse to be a function.
Checking whether a function is one-one (injective), using either the horizontal line test or the algebraic f(x₁) = f(x₂) approach shown here, is a staple question type in the CBSE Class 12 Relations and Functions chapter. "How to check if a function is one-one class 12" is a frequently searched topic, and this same reasoning is tested regularly in JEE Main function-based questions.
Direct method: equal outputs force equal inputs.
f is one-one if f(x1)=f(x2)⇒x1=x2. Assume f(x1)=f(x2):
2x1+5=2x2+5 ⇒ 2x1=2x2 ⇒ x1=x2.
Thus the equal outputs force equal inputs.
Since f(x1)=f(x2)⇒x1=x2, the function f(x)=2x+5 is one-one.
Assume two inputs give the same output and show directly that the inputs must be equal.
We use the direct method. Recall the definition: a function f is one-one (injective) if
f(x1)=f(x2) ⇒ x1=x2for all x1,x2∈R.
Step 1 — Assume equal outputs.
Let x1,x2∈R be such that f(x1)=f(x2). By the definition of f,
2x1+5=2x2+5.
Step 2 — Subtract 5 from both sides.
2x1=2x2.
Step 3 — Divide both sides by the non-zero number 2.
x1=x2.
Starting from f(x1)=f(x2) we have deduced x1=x2, which is exactly the condition for f to be one-one.
The function f(x)=2x+5 satisfies f(x1)=f(x2)⇒x1=x2, hence f is one-one.
Method: Proving a Function is One-One by the Direct (Algebraic) Method
This method applies to any "prove f is one-one" question for a function given by an explicit formula.
Steps
Step 1: State the definition you will use
Recall that f is one-one if f(x1)=f(x2)⟹x1=x2 for all x1,x2 in the domain — this contrapositive form ("equal outputs force equal inputs") is the version you actually prove, since it turns into a chain of algebra.
Step 2: Assume the outputs are equal, for two arbitrary inputs
Let x1,x2 be arbitrary elements of the domain with f(x1)=f(x2). This must be done for general x1,x2 — never for two specific numbers, since that would only check one pair, not prove the property for every pair.
Step 3: Substitute the formula for f and simplify
Write out f(x1)=f(x2) using the actual rule defining f, then use ordinary algebra (adding/subtracting the same quantity from both sides, dividing by a nonzero constant) to isolate x1 and x2.
Step 4: Conclude x1=x2
Once the algebra reduces to x1=x2, state explicitly that this is exactly the definition of one-one, so f is one-one.
Applying to this problem: with f(x)=2x+5, assume 2x1+5=2x2+5, subtract 5 and divide by the nonzero constant 2 to get x1=x2.
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Testing with specific numbers instead of general x1,x2
Why it's wrong: Checking that, say, f(1)=f(2) only verifies one pair of inputs — it says nothing about every other pair, so it can never establish that f is one-one for all x1,x2. Correct approach: let x1 and x2 be arbitrary (unspecified) real numbers and show the implication holds symbolically.
Mistake 2: Treating the horizontal-line test as a substitute for the algebraic proof
Why it's wrong: The horizontal-line test is a useful graphical check, but on its own it is not a rigorous proof — the question asks to "prove" f is one-one, which requires the algebraic f(x1)=f(x2)⇒x1=x2 argument, not just a visual justification. Correct approach: use the algebraic direct method as the actual proof, and treat any graphical reasoning as intuition only.
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-23-FN1 markMCQQ.Consider the following statements Statement-I : A function f:A→B is said to be one-one if and only if f(x)=f(y)⇒x=y Statement-II : A relation f:A→B is said to be a function if x=y⇒f(x)=f(y) Then which one of the following is true? (A) only statement-I is true (B) only statement-II is true (C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true (D) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is true
›Reveal solutionSolution
Both statements confuse the trivial "well-defined function" property with the genuine definition of "one-one"; neither statement is a correct definition. Answer: (D).
Concept and Intuition
A function f:A→B is one-one (injective) precisely when f(x)=f(y)⇒x=y; by contraposition this is logically the same as x=y⇒f(x)=f(y). Note carefully which direction is the real definition. The reversed-looking statement "f(x)=f(y)⇒x=y" is actually the contrapositive of "x=y⇒f(x)=f(y)" — and that latter statement is simply what it means for f to be a well-defined function at all (every function assigns exactly one output to a given input, so equal inputs must give equal outputs). Therefore "f(x)=f(y)⇒x=y" is automatically true for every function, whether or not it is one-one, so it cannot serve as an iff-characterisation of being one-one.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Statement-I asserts f is one-one ⟺ [f(x)=f(y)⇒x=y].
- The bracketed condition is the contrapositive of "x=y⇒f(x)=f(y)", which is true for every function regardless of injectivity (this is just well-definedness).
- So the bracketed condition holds even for functions that are NOT one-one — meaning the claimed "iff" fails (a non-one-one function would satisfy the RHS but not the LHS). Statement-I is false.
- Statement-II asserts f is a function if x=y⇒f(x)=f(y) — but this condition (different inputs give different outputs) is exactly the definition of one-one, not of being a function. A relation qualifies as a function purely by every element of the domain having a unique image; it says nothing about distinct inputs needing distinct outputs (e.g. the constant function f(x)=5 is a perfectly valid function but violates this condition for every pair x=y). Statement-II is false.
- Both statements fail, so neither is true.
Common Mistakes
- Not noticing that "f(x)=f(y)⇒x=y" is a tautology for all functions and mistaking it for the actual injectivity condition.
- Assuming any true-sounding implication about f must be the definition being asked about, without checking whether it also holds for non-examples.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D).
ANSWER: D
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