Q.Let f be a function defined on [a,b] such that f′(x)>0, for all x∈(a,b). Then prove that f is an increasing function on (a,b).
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🔒 Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →Concept understanding — Mean Value Theorem
The Mean Value Theorem
Imagine you drive Delhi to Agra — 200 km — in exactly 4 hours, so your average speed is 50 km/h. Was your speed exactly 50 km/h at some instant? If your motion was smooth, the Mean Value Theorem says yes. That is its soul: it links the average rate of change of a function over an interval to its instantaneous rate at some point inside.
The Intuition
Think of f(x) as a smooth path from x=a to x=b. The average rate of change is the slope of the chord joining the endpoints:
Average slope=b−af(b)−f(a)
If the path has no sharp corners or breaks, then at some interior point the tangent's slope must exactly equal this chord slope — geometrically, the tangent there is parallel to the chord. (If you always went slower than average you'd never arrive; always faster and you'd overshoot — so you must hit the average at least once.)
The Precise Statement
If f is
- continuous on [a,b], and
- differentiable on (a,b),
then there exists at least one c∈(a,b) with
f′(c)=b−af(b)−f(a)
Continuity means no breaks; differentiability means a well-defined tangent at every interior point — no corners, no vertical tangents.
A Simple Example
Take f(x)=x2 on [1,3]. The average slope is 3−19−1=4, and f′(x)=2x. Setting 2c=4 gives c=2∈(1,3), and indeed f′(2)=4.
The theorem guarantees existence, not uniqueness — there may be more than one such c.
Why It Matters …
The key idea is the Mean Value Theorem (MVT). If a function is differentiable on (a,b) and continuous on [a,b], then for any two points x1<x2 in (a,b), there exists some c∈(x1,x2) such that:
f′(c)=x2−x1f(x2)−f(x1)
Since f′(x)>0 for all x∈(a,b), we have f′(c)>0 for this particular c. Therefore:
x2−x1f(x2)−f(x1)>0 …
The Mean Value Theorem guarantees that for any two points x1<x2 in (a,b), there exists c∈(x1,x2) with f(x2)−f(x1)=f′(c)(x2−x1). Since f′(c)>0 and x2−x1>0, the difference is positive, so f(x2)>f(x1) — hence f is strictly increasing.
The core idea here is deceptively simple: if the derivative is positive everywhere, the function must be rising. But why is that logically airtight? The derivative only tells us about instantaneous behaviour — what happens at a single point. To conclude something about the function over an entire interval, we need a bridge between local slope and global change. That bridge is the Mean Value Theorem.
The Mean Value Theorem says: if a function is continuous on [p,q] and differentiable on (p,q), then there is some point c inside where the instantaneous slope equals the average slope over the whole interval. In symbols:
f′(c)=q−pf(q)−f(p).
This is powerful because it ties the difference in function values directly to the derivative at some interior point.
Now, to prove f is increasing on (a,b), we need to show: whenever x1<x2 (both in (a,b)), we have f(x1)<f(x2). Let's walk through it.
-
Pick any two points x1 and x2 in (a,b) with x1<x2. Since f is differentiable on (a,b), it is also continuous on [a,b] (differentiability implies continuity). So f satisfies the conditions of the Mean Value Theorem on the closed interval [x1,x2].
-
Apply the Mean Value Theorem to f on [x1,x2]. There exists some c in (x1,x2) such that
f′(c)=x2−x1f(x2)−f(x1).
-
Use the given condition: we know f′(x)>0 for every x in (a,b). Since c lies in (x1,x2)⊂(a,b), it follows that f′(c)>0.
-
Combine the facts: The denominator x2−x1 is positive (because x2>x1). So we have
x2−x1f(x2)−f(x1)>0.
Multiplying both sides by the positive number x2−x1 gives
f(x2)−f(x1)>0⟹f(x2)>f(x1). …
Method: Using the Mean Value Theorem to Prove Monotonicity
This method teaches the reasoning pattern for turning a statement about the sign of the derivative at every point into a statement about how the function's values compare at two different points — exactly the gap the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) bridges.
Steps
Step 1: Recognise when MVT is the right tool
Whenever you're given information about f′(x) everywhere on an interval but asked to conclude something about f(x1) versus f(x2) at two specific points, you need a theorem that connects the local (instantaneous slope) to the global (change in value) — that is exactly what MVT does. A derivative being positive at a point only says the function is rising right there; it takes MVT to extend that to "therefore f(x2)>f(x1)".
Step 2: State the hypotheses and verify them
MVT requires f to be continuous on the closed interval and differentiable on the open interval. Here, f differentiable on (a,b) already guarantees continuity there, so for any x1<x2 chosen inside (a,b), f is continuous on [x1,x2] and differentiable on (x1,x2) — the hypotheses hold.
Step 3: Apply MVT on the sub-interval
For the chosen x1<x2, MVT guarantees some c∈(x1,x2) with
f′(c)=x2−x1f(x2)−f(x1).
Step 4: Combine the given sign information with the sign of the denominator …
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Assuming f′(x)>0⇒f increasing without proof
Many students treat this as "obvious" and simply assert it, without ever invoking MVT. Why it's wrong: the derivative's sign is only local information about the instantaneous slope at each point; nothing automatically extends that to a comparison of function values at two separate points — that logical bridge is precisely what the question asks you to build. Correct approach: explicitly apply MVT on [x1,x2] to produce the link.
Mistake 2: Treating an endpoint as a possible value of c
A student may write f′(a) or f′(b) into the MVT conclusion, or apply the theorem directly on [a,b] using f′(a) or f′(b). Why it's wrong: MVT only guarantees a point c in the open interval between the two chosen points — endpoints are never valid candidates for c, and in this problem f′ isn't even given to exist at a or b themselves. Correct approach: apply MVT to an arbitrary interior sub-interval (x1,x2)⊂(a,b), not to [a,b] itself. …
Showing the 12 most recent of 24 on this concept.
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-15-FN1 markMCQQ.If f(x) is a differentiable function, f′(x)≥5 ∀x∈[2,6], f(2)=4 and f(3)=15, then a possible value of f(6) (A) =24 (B) lies between 4 and 15 (C) ≤15 (D) =5
›Reveal solutionSolution
Classic Mean Value Theorem bound: f′(x)≥5 on [2,6] with f(2)=4 forces f(6)≥f(2)+5(6−2)=24; monotonicity (since f′>0) rules out the smaller options, leaving f(6)=24 as the consistent choice.
Concept and Intuition
When you know a lower bound on the derivative of a function over an interval, the Mean Value Theorem converts that into a lower bound on how much the function must have increased over that interval — a derivative that's 'at least 5' everywhere means the function gains at least 5×(length of interval) over any sub-interval. Combined with the fact that a positive derivative makes f strictly increasing, this is often enough to eliminate implausible answer choices in an MCQ even without pinning down f exactly.
Step-by-Step Solution
- f is differentiable on [2,6] with f′(x)≥5 throughout, and f is continuous there (differentiability implies continuity), so the Mean Value Theorem applies on [2,6]: there is some c∈(2,6) with
f(6)−f(2)=f′(c)(6−2).
- Since f′(c)≥5, we get f(6)−f(2)≥5×4=20, i.e. f(6)≥f(2)+20=4+20=24.
- Also, because f′(x)≥5>0 on the whole interval, f is strictly increasing on [2,6]. In particular, since 3<6, we must have f(6)>f(3)=15.
- Check each option against these two facts (f(6)≥24 and f(6)>15):
- (B) 'lies between 4 and 15' — violates f(6)>15. Rejected.
- (C) '≤15' — violates f(6)>15. Rejected.
- (D) '=5' — far below 15. Rejected. …
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-23-AN1 markMCQQ.If the function f(x)=ax3+bx2+26x−24 satisfies the conditions of Rolle's theorem in [2,4] and f′(3+31)=0, then the value of ab= (A) −9 (B) 9 (C) −3 (D) 3
›Reveal solutionSolution
Rolle's condition f(2)=f(4) plus the given stationary point, split into rational and irrational parts, pin down a=1,b=−9, giving ab=−9.
Concept and Intuition
Rolle's theorem requires f(2)=f(4) for f to have a critical point in (2,4). The extra given condition f′(3+31)=0 involves an irrational number; since a,b must be rational (they're the polynomial's coefficients), the equation obtained by plugging this irrational value into f′ must have its rational part and its (31)-coefficient part vanish separately.
Step-by-Step Solution
- f(x)=ax3+bx2+26x−24.
- f(2)=8a+4b+52−24=8a+4b+28; f(4)=64a+16b+104−24=64a+16b+80.
- Rolle's: f(2)=f(4)⇒8a+4b+28=64a+16b+80⇒56a+12b+52=0⇒14a+3b+13=0 … (Eq. 1)
- f′(x)=3ax2+2bx+26. Let c=3+31, so c2=9+36+31=328+23 (using 36=23), and write s=31 so c=3+s, c2=328+6s.
- f′(c)=3a(328+6s)+2b(3+s)+26=0⇒(28a+6b+26)+s(18a+2b)=0. …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-19-AN1 markMCQQ.For all x∈[0,2024] assume that f(x) is differentiable, f(0)=−2 and f′(x)≥5. Then the least possible value of f(2024) is (A) 10,120 (B) 10,118 (C) 10,122 (D) 2024
›Reveal solutionSolution
A lower bound on the derivative gives a lower bound on the total increase via the Mean Value Theorem; the least possible value of f(2024) is 10,118.
Concept and Intuition
If a function's rate of change is bounded below by some constant m everywhere on an interval, then the function itself can only increase by at least m times the interval's length — it can grow faster, but never slower. This is a direct consequence of the Mean Value Theorem (or, equivalently, integrating the inequality f′(x)≥5).
Step-by-Step Solution
- By the Mean Value Theorem, there exists c∈(0,2024) such that f′(c)=2024−0f(2024)−f(0).
- Since f′(x)≥5 for all x in [0,2024], in particular f′(c)≥5.
- So 2024f(2024)−f(0)≥5⇒f(2024)≥f(0)+5(2024).
- Substitute f(0)=−2: f(2024)≥−2+10120=10118. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-12-FN1 markMCQQ.If Lagrange's mean value theorem is applied on the function f(x)=3x+5 in the interval [−2,2], then the entire set of values of 'c' of the Lagrange's mean value theorem is (A) ∅ (Null Set) (B) {−1,0,1} only (C) (−2,2)−{−1,0,1} (D) (−2,2)
›Reveal solutionSolution
Because f is linear, its derivative is the constant 3 everywhere, which already equals the required LMVT slope — so the "set of values of c" is the entire open interval, not a special finite set.
Concept and Intuition
Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem guarantees at least one c∈(a,b) with f′(c)=b−af(b)−f(a). For a general (curved) function this c is typically one or a few isolated points. But for a linear function, the derivative is constant and automatically equal to the average rate of change everywhere — so the condition holds for the whole interval, not just discrete points.
Step-by-Step Solution
- f(x)=3x+5 on [−2,2]; f is a polynomial, hence continuous on [−2,2] and differentiable on (−2,2) — LMVT applies.
- Compute the average rate of change: f(2)=3(2)+5=11, f(−2)=3(−2)+5=−1. 2−(−2)f(2)−f(−2)=411−(−1)=412=3.
- Compute f′(x)=3 — a constant, true for every real x, in particular every x∈(−2,2). …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-13-FN1 markMCQQ.Let f:R→R be such that f(2+x)=f(2−x)∀x∈R. If f(x) is twice differentiable such that f′(1)=0, then which one of the following is true? (A) there exist at least one c in (0,1) such that f′(c)=0 (B) there exist at least one c in (1,2) such that f′′(c)=0 (C) there exist at least one c in (0,1) such that f′′(c)=0 (D) there exist at least one c in (1,2) such that f′(c)=0
›Reveal solutionSolution
The symmetry condition forces f′(2)=0; with the given f′(1)=0, Rolle's theorem
applied to f′ on [1,2] guarantees f′′(c)=0 for some c∈(1,2).
Concept and Intuition
Symmetry of a function about a vertical line x=a (i.e. f(a+x)=f(a−x)) always forces
a horizontal tangent at x=a — the graph "folds" perfectly there. Once we have two
zeros of f′ (at x=1 and x=2), Rolle's theorem — applied not to f but to f′
itself — guarantees a zero of f′′ strictly between them.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Differentiate f(2+x)=f(2−x) with respect to x: f′(2+x)=−f′(2−x).
- Put x=0: f′(2)=−f′(2)⇒2f′(2)=0⇒f′(2)=0.
- We're given f′(1)=0 as well.
- f is twice differentiable, so f′ is differentiable (hence continuous) on [1,2].
- f′(1)=f′(2)=0 satisfies Rolle's theorem's hypotheses for the function f′ on [1,2].
- Rolle's theorem then gives some c∈(1,2) with (f′)′(c)=f′′(c)=0.
Common Mistakes …
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-15-FN1 markMCQQ.Let f(x) be a differentiable function, A(0,α) and B(8,β) be two points on the curve y=f(x). Given f(0)=2 and f′(4)=4−3. If the chord AB of the curve is parallel to the tangent drawn at the point (4,f(4)), then β= (A) −4 (B) −6 (C) 2 (D) 8
›Reveal solutionSolution
Equating the slope of chord AB to the given tangent slope f′(4)=−3/4 (both being parallel lines) gives β=−4.
Concept and Intuition
Two line segments are parallel exactly when they have equal slopes. Here we're told the chord joining two points on the curve is parallel to the tangent line at a third point on the curve — so we simply equate the chord's slope formula to the given derivative value and solve for the unknown ordinate.
Step-by-Step Solution
-
Since A(0,α) lies on y=f(x), α=f(0)=2.
-
Since B(8,β) lies on y=f(x), β=f(8) (unknown, to be found).
-
Slope of chord AB:
mAB=8−0β−α=8β−2
-
Slope of the tangent at x=4 is given: f′(4)=−43.
-
Since chord AB∥ tangent at (4,f(4)): …
-
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-12-AN1 markMCQQ.If Lagrange's mean value theorem is applied on the function f(x)=sin−1x in the interval [2−1,21], then the value of c given in Lagrange's theorem is (A) 2π4π2−9 (B) ππ2−9 (C) 0 (D) 2π
›Reveal solutionSolution
LMVT on sin−1x over [−1/2,1/2] requires solving f′(c)=π/3, giving c=ππ2−9.
Concept and Intuition
Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem says there exists c in (a,b) where the instantaneous slope f′(c) equals the average slope over [a,b]. Here the average slope is a fixed number computed from the boundary values of sin−1x, and we then invert f′(x)=1−x21 to find which x=c achieves that slope.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Compute the average slope: 1/2−(−1/2)f(1/2)−f(−1/2)=1π/6−(−π/6)=3π.
- f′(x)=1−x21, so LMVT requires 1−c21=3π.
- Invert: 1−c2=π3.
- Square: 1−c2=π29⇒c2=1−π29=π2π2−9. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-21-FN1 markMCQQ.Consider the following functions. I) f(x)=⎩⎨⎧21−x,(21−x)2,x<21x≥21 II) f(x)=∣3x−1∣ III) f(x)=x∣x∣ IV) f(x)=∣x∣ Then on [0, 1] Lagrange's mean value theorem is applicable to the functions (A) III, IV (B) II, III (C) I, III (D) II, IV
›Reveal solutionSolution
Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem needs continuity on the closed interval and differentiability on the open interval — check each function restricted to [0,1] for hidden kinks. Answer: III, IV.
Concept and Intuition
LMVT is often mis-applied to piecewise/absolute-value functions by overlooking a kink that happens to sit inside the interval of interest. The trick each time is to restrict the function's definition to exactly [0,1] — since x≥0 throughout, several of the "interesting" branches (which only differ for x<0) never actually come into play.
Step-by-Step Solution
- I) f(x)=21−x for x<21, (21−x)2 for x≥21. Both pieces agree in value at x=21 (both give 0), so f is continuous on [0,1]. But check differentiability at x=21: left-derivative of 21−x is −1; right-derivative of (21−x)2 is −2(21−x)x=1/2=0. Since −1=0, f is not differentiable at the interior point x=21 — LMVT does not apply.
- II) f(x)=∣3x−1∣ has a corner where 3x−1=0, i.e. x=31∈(0,1) — slopes −3 and +3 on either side, unequal. Not differentiable there — LMVT fails.
- III) f(x)=x∣x∣. On [0,1], since x≥0, ∣x∣=x, so f(x)=x2 throughout — a polynomial, continuous and differentiable everywhere on [0,1] (including at x=0, trivially). LMVT applies. …
- AP EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-05-AN1 markMCQQ.f:R→R is a function such that ∣f(x)−f(y)∣≤21∣x−y∣ ∀x,y∈R and f′(x)≥1/2 ∀x∈R, f(1)=1/2. Then the number of points of intersection of curve y=f(x) and the curve y=x2−2x−5 is (A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) infinite
›Reveal solutionSolution
The Lipschitz bound forces f to be exactly linear with slope 1/2; then just count real intersections with the given parabola.
Concept and Intuition
The condition ∣f(x)−f(y)∣≤21∣x−y∣ for all x,y says f is Lipschitz with constant 1/2; taking y→x this forces ∣f′(x)∣≤1/2 everywhere it's differentiable. Combined with the given f′(x)≥1/2, the only way both can hold is f′(x)=1/2 for all x. A function with constant derivative is linear.
Step-by-Step Solution
- From ∣f(x)−f(y)∣≤21∣x−y∣, dividing by ∣x−y∣ and taking the limit as y→x gives ∣f′(x)∣≤21.
- Given also f′(x)≥21, both together force f′(x)=21 for every x.
- Integrating, f(x)=2x+c.
- Using f(1)=21: 21+c=21⇒c=0. So f(x)=2x. …
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-18-FN1 markMCQQ.Let f:R→R be a differentiable function such that ∣f(x)−f(4)∣≤2∣x−y∣23 ∀x,y∈R. If f(0)=1, then ∫01f2(x)dx= (A) −2 (B) 21 (C) 0 (D) 1
›Reveal solutionSolution
A Hölder-type bound with exponent 3/2>1 forces the derivative to vanish everywhere, so f must be the constant function f≡1, making the integral trivially equal to 1.
Concept and Intuition
Whenever ∣f(x)−f(y)∣≤K∣x−y∣α with α>1, the function is forced to be constant. This is because the difference quotient x−yf(x)−f(y) is bounded by K∣x−y∣α−1, which goes to 0 as y→x (since α−1>0). So the derivative exists and equals 0 at every point — a stronger conclusion than Lipschitz continuity (α=1) would give.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Given: ∣f(x)−f(y)∣≤2∣x−y∣3/2 for all real x,y (reading the stray 'f(4)' as a typo for f(y), the natural reading for this classical inequality).
- For x=y, divide by ∣x−y∣: x−yf(x)−f(y)≤2∣x−y∣1/2.
- Take y→x: the right side →0 since ∣x−y∣1/2→0. By the squeeze theorem, f′(x)=y→xlimx−yf(x)−f(y)=0 for every x.
- A function with f′(x)=0 everywhere on R is constant. …
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-24-FN1 markMCQQ.If f(x)=xαlogx and f(0)=0, then the value of 'α' for which Rolle's theorem can be applied in [0,1] is ____ (A) -2 (B) -1 (C) 0 (D) 21
›Reveal solutionSolution
Rolle's theorem needs continuity at the endpoints; only a positive exponent α makes xαlogx→0 as x→0+, matching the given f(0)=0.
Concept and Intuition
Rolle's theorem requires: (i) f continuous on [0,1],
(ii) f differentiable on (0,1),
(iii) f(0)=f(1). Differentiability on the open interval is automatic here for any α (no issue at interior points). The delicate condition is continuity at x=0, since logx→−∞ there.
Step-by-Step Solution
- f(1)=1αlog1=0, and we are given f(0)=0, so f(0)=f(1) holds for any α — this doesn't discriminate between options.
- For f to be continuous at x=0 (matching the given value f(0)=0), we need x→0+limxαlogx=0. …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-21-FN1 markMCQQ.If the Rolle's theorem is applicable for the function f(x) defined by f(x)=x3+Px−12 on [0,1], then the value of C of the Rolle's theorem is (A) ±31 (B) −31 (C) 31 (D) 31
›Reveal solutionSolution
Rolle's theorem applying on [0,1] forces f(0)=f(1), which fixes P; then solve f′(c)=0 and keep only the root inside (0,1).
Concept and Intuition
Rolle's theorem requires equal function values at the endpoints. Once P is determined from that condition, the theorem guarantees at least one point c∈(0,1) where the tangent is horizontal — we just need to pick the root of f′(c)=0 that actually lies in the open interval.
Step-by-Step Solution
- f(x)=x3+Px−12. Rolle's applicability requires f(0)=f(1).
- f(0)=−12. f(1)=1+P−12=P−11.
- Set equal: P−11=−12⇒P=−1. So f(x)=x3−x−12.
- f′(x)=3x2−1. Set f′(c)=0: 3c2=1⇒c2=31⇒c=±31. …
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