Q.Find dxdy, if y=sin−1x+sin−11−x2, 0<x<1
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🔒 Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →Concept understanding — Inverse Function Relationship
Inverse Function Relationship
Two functions are inverses when each undoes the other. If f sends a to b, then f−1 sends b back to a. Chain them together and you land exactly where you started.
The defining equations
If f−1 is the inverse of f, then
f−1(f(x))=xandf(f−1(y))=y.
The first holds for every x in the domain of f; the second for every y in the range of f. This "round trip returns the input" is what inverse really means.
When does an inverse exist?
Only a one-to-one function (distinct inputs give distinct outputs) can be inverted — otherwise some output would have to map back to two inputs, which no function allows. Graphically, f must pass the horizontal line test.
When a function is not one-to-one over its whole domain (like sinx or x2), we first restrict it to a piece where it is, and the inverse lives on that restricted piece.
The geometry
Because (a,b) lies on f exactly when (b,a) lies on f−1, the graph of f−1 is the mirror image of f across the line y=x. Consequently the domain and range swap: the range of f becomes the domain of f−1.
Why the restriction bites — the trig case
For inverse trigonometric functions the relationship is one-sided. The "outer undo" always works:
sin(sin−1x)=xfor all x∈[−1,1].
But the "inner undo" only works on the principal range:
sin−1(sinx)=xonly if x∈[−2π,2π]. …
Concept: Second Derivative Inverse Cosine — the derivative of sin−11−x2 simplifies using the identity sin−11−x2=cos−1x for 0<x<1.
Step 1: For 0<x<1, note that 1−x2 is positive and in (0,1). The principal value of sin−11−x2 equals cos−1x, because sin(cos−1x)=1−x2.
Step 2: Hence y=sin−1x+cos−1x. …
The key idea is that for 0<x<1, the second term sin−11−x2 simplifies to cos−1x, and since sin−1x+cos−1x=2π, the function is constant. Therefore, dxdy=0.
Why This Works: The Second Derivative Inverse Cosine Insight
When you see a sum of inverse trigonometric functions, your first instinct should be to check if they combine into a constant. For 0<x<1, both sin−1x and cos−1x are defined and their sum is famously 2π. The trick here is recognizing that sin−11−x2 is actually cos−1x in disguise — but only for the given domain.
The domain 0<x<1 is crucial. Outside this interval, the simplification changes sign or becomes undefined. Inside it, 1−x2 is positive and less than 1, so the inverse sine is well-defined and yields an angle in (0,2π).
Let's work through it step by step.
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Set up the function
We have y=sin−1x+sin−11−x2, with 0<x<1.
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Simplify the second term
Let θ=sin−11−x2. Then sinθ=1−x2.
Since 0<x<1, we have 0<1−x2<1, so θ lies in (0,2π).
Now, cosθ=1−sin2θ=1−(1−x2)=x2=∣x∣.
Because x>0, ∣x∣=x, so cosθ=x.
Since θ∈(0,2π), we have θ=cos−1x.
Watch outA common mistake is to forget the absolute value. If x were negative, x2=∣x∣=−x, and the simplification would give θ=cos−1(−x)=π−cos−1x, which changes the sum entirely. Always check the domain.
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Rewrite the function
Substituting back:
y=sin−1x+cos−1x …
Method: Spotting a Constant Before Differentiating
Before diving into the chain rule on a sum of inverse trig functions, check whether the expression itself simplifies to a constant using a standard identity — if it does, the derivative is 0 immediately, with no calculus needed at all.
Steps
Step 1: Look for a recognisable inverse-trig identity in the given expression
Common ones: sin−1x+cos−1x=2π, tan−1x+cot−1x=2π, and conversions like sin−11−x2=cos−1x (valid on a restricted domain).
Step 2: Justify the identity carefully using the given domain …
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Differentiating sin−11−x2 directly via the chain rule instead of first checking for a constant.
Why it's wrong: the direct route is far messier (involving a nested square root inside an inverse sine) and much more likely to produce an algebra error than simply recognising the sum is constant. Correct approach: always scan a sum of inverse trig terms for a known identity before reaching for the chain rule.
Mistake 2: Forgetting the absolute value / domain check when converting 1−x2-based inverse sine to inverse cosine. …
Showing the 12 most recent of 19 on this concept.
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-12-AN1 markMCQQ.If f(x)=34x+cosx and g(x) is the inverse of f(x), then g′(2π)= (A) 116 (B) π1 (C) 73 (D) π2
›Reveal solutionSolution
Finding the point x=3π/2 where f(x)=2π and applying the inverse-function derivative rule gives g′(2π)=73.
Concept and Intuition
For an invertible function f with inverse g, the key identity is g′(y0)=f′(x0)1 where f(x0)=y0. So instead of trying to write g explicitly (often impossible here, since f mixes a linear term with cosx), we just need to (a) find the x0 with f(x0)=2π, and (b) evaluate f′ there.
Step-by-Step Solution
- f(x)=34x+cosx. We want x0 with f(x0)=2π.
- Try x0=23π: f(23π)=34⋅23π+cos23π=2π+0=2π. ✓ So g(2π)=23π.
- f′(x)=34−sinx. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-13-AN1 markMCQQ.If Cosech−1x=log(752−1) then, Tanh−1(x1)= (A) log21 (B) log23 (C) log3 (D) log31
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests converting an inverse hyperbolic given as a log expression into eu and e−u, extracting sinhu, and then plugging into the tanh−1 log formula.
Concept and Intuition
csch−1x=sinh−1(1/x), and sinh−1(t)=log(t+t2+1). If we are told sinh−1(1/x) equals a specific log expression, that expression IS eu where u=sinh−1(1/x). From eu we can recover sinhu=1/x directly using e−u=1/eu, without ever solving for u itself.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let u=Cosech−1x=log752−1, so eu=752−1.
- e−u=52−17=(52)2−127(52+1)=497(52+1)=752+1.
- sinhu=2eu−e−u=14(52−1)−(52+1)=14−2=−71.
- Since u=sinh−1(1/x), we get 1/x=sinhu=−1/7. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-15-AN1 markMCQQ.If f(x)=Tan−1x and g is the inverse of 'f', then g′(f(2))= (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests the derivative-of-inverse-function rule. Since g undoes f, g′(f(2))=f′(2)1=5.
Concept and Intuition
If g is the inverse of f, then for any x, g′(f(x))=f′(x)1 — this is the standard inverse function derivative rule, and it avoids ever needing an explicit formula for g.
Step-by-Step Solution
- f(x)=tan−1x⇒f′(x)=1+x21.
- Since g=f−1, differentiating g(f(x))=x gives g′(f(x))⋅f′(x)=1, i.e. g′(f(x))=f′(x)1.
- Set x=2: g′(f(2))=f′(2)1.
- f′(2)=1+41=51.
- So g′(f(2))=1/51=5.
Common Mistakes …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-18-FN1 markMCQQ.f is differentiable function such that f(1)=8 and f′(1)=81. If f is invertible and g=f−1, then (A) g′(1)=8 (B) g′(1)=81 (C) g′(8)=8 (D) g′(8)=81
›Reveal solutionSolution
Using the inverse-function derivative rule g′(y)=1/f′(g(y)) with g(8)=1 (since
f(1)=8), we get g′(8)=1/f′(1)=8.
Concept and Intuition
If g=f−1, then differentiating f(g(y))=y using the chain rule gives
f′(g(y))⋅g′(y)=1, i.e. g′(y)=f′(g(y))1. The key bookkeeping step is
correctly matching which y-value corresponds to which x-value under f.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Given f(1)=8 and f′(1)=81, and g=f−1.
- Since f(1)=8, we have g(8)=1.
- Inverse derivative rule: g′(8)=f′(g(8))1=f′(1)1=1/81=8. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-22-AN1 markMCQQ.If g is the inverse of the function f(x) and g(x)=x+tanx then, f′(x)= (A) 1+sec2x (B) 1+sec2f(x)1 (C) 1+sec2g(x)1 (D) 1+sec2f(x)
›Reveal solutionSolution
Using the inverse-function derivative rule f′(g(x))⋅g′(x)=1 and re-expressing the result purely in terms of x (using x=f(g(x))) gives f′(x)=1+sec2f(x)1.
Concept and Intuition
If g is the inverse of f, then applying one after the other gives back the input: f(g(x))=x. Differentiating this identity via the chain rule directly links f′ at the point g(x) to g′(x). The subtlety in this problem is that the answer must be expressed as a function purely of x (i.e. f′(x), not f′(g(x))) — this requires a careful relabelling step using the inverse relationship again.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Since g=f−1, we have f(g(x))=x for all x in the domain.
- Differentiate both sides with respect to x using the chain rule:
f′(g(x))⋅g′(x)=1⟹f′(g(x))=g′(x)1
- Given g(x)=x+tanx, so g′(x)=1+sec2x. Thus:
f′(g(x))=1+sec2x1(⋆)
- Equation (⋆) gives the value of f′ at the point g(x), in terms of x. To express f′ as a function of its own argument, substitute t=g(x). Since f and g are inverses, x=f(t) (because f(g(x))=x means f(t)=x when t=g(x)). …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-23-AN1 markMCQQ.If f(x)=(x+1)2−1,x≥−1, then {x∣f(x)=f−1(x)} is (A) {0,−1} (B) {−1,0,1} (C) {−1,0,2−3+3i,2−3−3i} (D) an empty set
›Reveal solutionSolution
For an increasing invertible function, f(x)=f−1(x) forces f(f(x))=x; solving that quartic-in-disguise on the restricted domain x≥−1 gives exactly x=−1,0.
Concept and Intuition
f(x)=(x+1)2−1 is a rightward-shifted-up parabola restricted to x≥−1, where it is strictly increasing and hence one-to-one — so f−1 exists on this domain. If y=f−1(x) then by definition f(y)=x. If additionally f(x)=y, substituting gives f(f(x))=f(y)=x. So every solution of f(x)=f−1(x) must satisfy f(f(x))=x, and we can solve that equation instead.
Step-by-Step Solution
- f(x)=(x+1)2−1, domain x≥−1.
- Let y=f(x), so y+1=(x+1)2. Requiring f(y)=x means (y+1)2−1=x, i.e. (y+1)2=x+1.
- Substitute y+1=(x+1)2: ((x+1)2)2=x+1.
- Let u=x+1≥0: u4=u⟹u(u3−1)=0⟹u=0 or u3=1.
- Since u≥0 real, the only real solutions are u=0 (giving x=−1) and u=1 (giving x=0) — the other two cube roots of 1 are complex and don't correspond to any real x in the domain. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-23-AN1 markMCQQ.Tanh−1(sinθ)= (A) Sinh−1(cosecθ) (B) Sinh−1(secθ) (C) Cosh−1(cosecθ) (D) Cosh−1(secθ)
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests converting between inverse hyperbolic functions and their logarithmic definitions, plus a classical trig-log identity. Answer: Cosh−1(secθ).
Concept and Intuition
Inverse hyperbolic functions have explicit log forms: Tanh−1y=21log1−y1+y and Cosh−1x=log(x+x2−1) for x≥1. Separately, log(secθ+tanθ) is the classical "integral of secant" expression, which turns out to equal 21log1−sinθ1+sinθ. Recognizing both sides collapse to the same log expression proves the identity.
Step-by-Step Solution
- By definition, Tanh−1(sinθ)=21log1−sinθ1+sinθ.
- Multiply numerator and denominator inside the log by (1+sinθ): 1−sinθ1+sinθ=1−sin2θ(1+sinθ)2=cos2θ(1+sinθ)2=(cosθ1+sinθ)2=(secθ+tanθ)2.
- So Tanh−1(sinθ)=21log(secθ+tanθ)2=log(secθ+tanθ) (taking secθ+tanθ>0).
- Now compute Cosh−1(secθ)=log(secθ+sec2θ−1). Since sec2θ−1=tan2θ, this is log(secθ+tanθ) (taking tanθ≥0 in the relevant range). …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-24-FN1 markMCQQ.If cot(Cos−1x)=sec{Tan−1(b2−a2a)}, b>a, then x= (A) 2b2−a2b (B) 2b2−a2a (C) ab2−a2 (D) bb2−a2
›Reveal solutionSolution
Converting both inverse-trig expressions to algebraic ratios and equating cot(cos−1x)=sec(tan−1(⋯)) leads to a quadratic in x solved as x=2b2−a2b.
Concept and Intuition
The standard technique for equations mixing different inverse trig functions is to convert each side to a right-triangle ratio: if θ=cos−1x, build a right triangle with adjacent =x, hypotenuse =1, opposite =1−x2, and read off cotθ directly. Similarly for ϕ=tan−1(something), build a triangle with opposite/adjacent given by that "something" and read off secϕ via 1+tan2ϕ.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let θ=Cos−1x (principal range [0,π]), so cosθ=x and sinθ=1−x2 (≥0).
- Then cotθ=sinθcosθ=1−x2x.
- Let ϕ=Tan−1(b2−a2a) (principal range (−π/2,π/2), so secϕ>0), so tanϕ=b2−a2a.
- secϕ=1+tan2ϕ=1+b2−a2a2=b2−a2b2=b2−a2b.
- Equation becomes 1−x2x=b2−a2b. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-24-FN1 markMCQQ.If Sinh−1x=log3 and Cosh−1y=log23, then Tanh−1(x−y)= (A) log35 (B) log35 (C) log34 (D) log32
›Reveal solutionSolution
Directly computing x=sinh(log3) and y=cosh(log23) gives x−y=41, and Tanh−1(41) simplifies to log5/3.
Concept and Intuition
Hyperbolic functions of a logarithm collapse nicely because elogk=k: sinh(logk)=2k−1/k and cosh(logk)=2k+1/k. Once x and y are plain numbers, Tanh−1z=21log1−z1+z finishes the problem as ordinary logarithm algebra.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Sinh−1x=log3⇒x=sinh(log3)=2elog3−e−log3=23−31=28/3=34.
- Cosh−1y=log23⇒y=cosh(log23)=223+32=269+64=213/6=1213.
- x−y=34−1213=1216−1213=123=41. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-26-FN1 markMCQQ.If Tanh−1x=Coth−1y=log5, then Tan−1(xy)= (A) 4π (B) 3π (C) 6π (D) 43π
›Reveal solutionSolution
Convert the inverse hyperbolic definitions to logarithmic form, solve for x and y individually, and the product collapses to exactly 1. Answer: tan−1(xy)=π/4.
Concept and Intuition
tanh−1x=21log1−x1+x and coth−1y=21logy−1y+1 are standard logarithmic definitions of the inverse hyperbolic functions; setting both equal to the same value log5=21ln5 gives two independent linear equations.
Step-by-Step Solution
- tanh−1x=21log1−x1+x=log5=21ln5, so log1−x1+x=ln5⇒1−x1+x=5.
- Solve: 1+x=5−5x⇒6x=4⇒x=32.
- coth−1y=21logy−1y+1=21ln5⇒y−1y+1=5.
- Solve: y+1=5y−5⇒6=4y⇒y=23. …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-18-FN1 markMCQQ.Cosh−12= (A) log(2+3) (B) log(2+5) (C) log(2−5) (D) log(2+2)
›Reveal solutionSolution
Using the logarithmic form of the inverse hyperbolic cosine, cosh−12=log(2+3).
Concept and Intuition
The inverse hyperbolic cosine has the closed form cosh−1x=log(x+x2−1) for x≥1, derived by solving x=coshy=2ey+e−y for y using the quadratic formula in ey.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let y=cosh−12, so coshy=2⇒2ey+e−y=2⇒ey+e−y=4.
- Multiply by ey: e2y−4ey+1=0. Solve as a quadratic in ey: ey=24±16−4=2±3.
- Since cosh−1 is defined as the non-negative branch, take ey=2+3 (the larger root, giving y≥0). …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-19-AN1 markMCQQ.If y=f(x) is a thrice differentiable function and a bijection then dy2d2x(dxdy)3+dx2d2y= (A) y (B) −y (C) x (D) 0
›Reveal solutionSolution
This is a direct application of the well-known second-derivative inverse-function relation; the two terms exactly cancel to give 0.
Concept and Intuition
When y=f(x) is a differentiable bijection, x can be viewed as a function of y (via the inverse function), and there's a standard relation connecting the second derivatives in the two directions. Differentiating dydx=(dxdy)−1 with respect to y (using the chain rule) produces exactly the identity used here.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Start from dydx=dy/dx1.
- Differentiate both sides with respect to y: dy2d2x=dyd(dy/dx1)=−(dy/dx)21⋅dyd(dxdy).
- Convert the inner derivative w.r.t. y to w.r.t. x via chain rule: dyd(dxdy)=dx2d2y⋅dydx=dy/dxd2y/dx2.
- So dy2d2x=−(dy/dx)21⋅dy/dxd2y/dx2=−(dy/dx)3d2y/dx2. …
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