Q.If f(x)=∣x∣3, show that f′′(x) exists for all real x and find it.
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🔒 Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →Concept understanding — Differentiability of Absolute Value
Differentiability of the Absolute Value Function
Start with something familiar: the absolute value of x, written ∣x∣, is its distance from zero on the number line. So ∣3∣=3, ∣−5∣=5, and ∣0∣=0. Graphically, it looks like a V-shape — two straight lines meeting at the origin.
Differentiability is about whether a function has a well-defined slope (derivative) at a point. For smooth curves like x2 or sinx, the slope exists everywhere. But the absolute value function has a sharp corner at x=0 — and that corner is the whole story.
Intuition: Why the corner matters
Walk along y=∣x∣ from left to right. Approaching x=0 from the left, the slope is −1 (the line goes downward). Leaving x=0 to the right, the slope is suddenly +1 (the line goes upward). At x=0, there's no single slope — it changes abruptly. That's why ∣x∣ is not differentiable at x=0. Everywhere else — for x<0 and x>0 — the graph is a straight line with constant slope, so ∣x∣ is differentiable at every point except x=0.
A function must be continuous to be differentiable, but continuity alone isn't enough. The absolute value function is continuous at x=0 (no break), yet fails to be differentiable there because of the sharp corner.
The precise statement
Let f(x)=∣x∣. Then:
- For x>0: f(x)=x, so f′(x)=1.
- For x<0: f(x)=−x, so f′(x)=−1.
- At x=0: the derivative does not exist, because the left-hand and right-hand derivatives are different numbers.
f′(0)=limh→0h∣0+h∣−∣0∣=limh→0h∣h∣
This limit does not exist because:
- From the right (h→0+): h∣h∣=hh=1
- From the left (h→0−): h∣h∣=h−h=−1
Since the two one-sided limits differ, the two-sided limit does not exist.
A common mistake is to think that because ∣x∣ is continuous at x=0, it must be differentiable there. Continuity is necessary for differentiability, but not sufficient. The absolute value function is the classic counterexample.
The bigger picture …
Idea: write ∣x∣3 as a piecewise cubic, differentiate twice, and check x=0 from the limit definition.
Since ∣x∣=x for x≥0 and ∣x∣=−x for x<0,
f(x)={x3,−x3,x≥0x<0.
First derivatives (x=0): f′(x)=3x2 for x>0 and f′(x)=−3x2 for x<0; both give f′(x)=3x∣x∣. At x=0, f′(0)=limh→0h∣h∣3=limh→0∣h∣h=0. So f′(x)=3x∣x∣ everywhere. …
Writing ∣x∣3 piecewise and differentiating gives f′(x)=3x∣x∣ and f′′(x)=6∣x∣; the cube smooths the corner, so f′′ exists for every real x (including x=0, where it is 0).
The plain absolute value ∣x∣ has a corner at x=0 and is not differentiable there. But cubing it smooths that corner, so ∣x∣3 turns out to be twice differentiable everywhere. We show this by splitting into cases and checking x=0 carefully with the limit definition.
Step 1 — write f piecewise
Since ∣x∣=x for x≥0 and ∣x∣=−x for x<0, and (−x)3=−x3,
f(x)={x3,−x3,x≥0x<0.
Step 2 — first derivative for x=0
f′(x)={3x2,−3x2,x>0x<0.
Both cases are captured by f′(x)=3x∣x∣ (since x∣x∣=x2 for x>0 and −x2 for x<0).
Step 3 — check f′(0)
f′(0)=limh→0hf(h)−f(0)=limh→0h∣h∣3=limh→0∣h∣⋅h=0.
So f′(x)=3x∣x∣ holds for all x, including 0.
Step 4 — second derivative for x=0
Differentiate each piece:
f′′(x)={6x,−6x,x>0x<0. …
Method: Differentiating an Absolute-Value Function Piecewise, and Checking the Seam
Whenever a function is built from ∣x∣, split it into cases based on the sign of x, differentiate each case with the ordinary rules, and then check the transition point (x=0) separately using the limit definition of the derivative — never just by evaluating the piecewise formula there, since the two one-sided formulas might disagree.
Steps
Step 1: Rewrite the function piecewise using ∣x∣=x for x≥0 and ∣x∣=−x for x<0
Step 2: Differentiate each piece using ordinary rules (for x=0)
Step 3: Combine the two pieces into a single formula if they match a common pattern (e.g. involving ∣x∣ again)
Step 4: Check the point where the pieces meet using the limit definition
f′(0)=limh→0hf(h)−f(0). …
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Assuming ∣x∣3 inherits the non-differentiability of ∣x∣ at x=0 without checking.
Why it's wrong: ∣x∣ itself has a sharp corner at 0 (left/right derivatives disagree), but cubing it smooths that corner out — the extra power changes the behaviour entirely, and this must be verified, not assumed by analogy. Correct approach: always run the limit-definition check at the seam point rather than pattern-matching to a simpler related function.
Mistake 2: Evaluating the piecewise formula at x=0 instead of using the limit definition. …
Showing the 12 most recent of 22 on this concept.
- AP EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-08-AN1 markMCQQ.If f(x)=∣x2−3x+2∣, then dxdf= (A) 2x−3, when 1<x<2 (B) 3−2x, when x>2 (C) 2x−3, when x>2 (D) 3+2x, when 1<x<2
›Reveal solutionSolution
Removing the modulus needs the sign of (x−1)(x−2) on each interval, which flips between (1,2) and x>2.
Concept and Intuition
∣g(x)∣=g(x) where g≥0 and =−g(x) where g<0; differentiating a modulus requires splitting the domain by the sign of the inside expression.
Step-by-Step Solution
- x2−3x+2=(x−1)(x−2); this is negative exactly on (1,2) and positive for x<1 or x>2.
- On (1,2): f(x)=−(x2−3x+2)=−x2+3x−2⇒f′(x)=−2x+3=3−2x.
- On x>2: f(x)=x2−3x+2⇒f′(x)=2x−3. …
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-25-AN1 markMCQQ.The set of all points where the function f(x)=2x∣x∣ is differentiable is ________ (A) (−∞,∞) (B) (−∞,0)∪(0,∞) (C) (0,∞) (D) [0,∞)
›Reveal solutionSolution
f(x)=2x∣x∣ is a smoothly-joined piecewise quadratic; it is differentiable at every real number, including x=0. Answer: all of R.
Concept and Intuition
Functions built from ∣x∣ often fail to be differentiable at 0 (like ∣x∣ itself), but multiplying by an extra factor of x can "soften" the corner into a genuine smooth point — that's exactly what happens here.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Write f(x)=2x∣x∣={2x2,−2x2,x≥0x<0.
- For x>0: f′(x)=4x. For x<0: f′(x)=−4x.
- Check differentiability at x=0 directly from the definition: f′(0)=limh→0hf(h)−f(0)=limh→0h2h∣h∣=limh→02∣h∣=0. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-27-FN1 markMCQQ.The domain of the derivative of the function f(x)=1+∣x∣x is (A) [0,∞) (B) (−∞,0) (C) (−∞,∞) (D) (0,∞)
›Reveal solutionSolution
f(x)=x/(1+∣x∣) is smooth on each side of 0, and the one-sided derivatives at 0 actually agree, so it is differentiable everywhere. Answer: domain of f′ is R.
Concept and Intuition
Functions involving ∣x∣ are often not differentiable at x=0 (like ∣x∣ itself), so the natural first suspicion is that the derivative fails to exist there. But here the two branches of f are constructed so that they meet not just in value but in slope at x=0 — the modulus is "softened" by the 1+∣x∣ denominator, so this particular function turns out to be differentiable at every point.
Step-by-Step Solution
- For x≥0: f(x)=1+xx. Quotient rule: f′(x)=(1+x)2(1+x)(1)−x(1)=(1+x)21.
- For x<0: f(x)=1−xx. Quotient rule: f′(x)=(1−x)2(1−x)(1)−x(−1)=(1−x)21−x+x=(1−x)21.
- Check differentiability at x=0: right-hand derivative =(1+0)21=1; left-hand derivative =(1−0)21=1. They match, so f′(0)=1 exists. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-18-AN1 markMCQQ.If f(x)=∣x−2∣(34∣x∣−1) is a real valued function, then the set of points at which f is not differentiable, is (A) {0} (B) {2} (C) {0,2} (D) ∅
›Reveal solutionSolution
Both ∣x−2∣ and the ∣x∣ hidden inside the exponent create corners; check whether the other factor vanishes at each corner to see if it's smoothed away — here neither is, so both survive.
Concept and Intuition
∣g(x)∣-type expressions are non-differentiable exactly where g(x)=0 (a corner), unless multiplied by a factor that is itself zero there with enough smoothness to cancel the kink. Here there are two potential kink locations — x=2 from ∣x−2∣, and x=0 hidden inside 34∣x∣ — so each must be checked independently against the other factor.
Step-by-Step Solution
- At x=2: near x=2, f(x)=±(x−2)(34∣x∣−1), a corner from ∣x−2∣ times a smooth nonzero factor (34⋅2−1=38−1=0 at x=2). Computing one-sided derivatives: for x→2−, f′(2−)=−(38−1); for x→2+, f′(2+)=+(38−1). These differ, so f is not differentiable at 2.
- At x=0: here ∣x−2∣=2−x is smooth (equals 2 at x=0, nonzero). Expand 34∣x∣−1 near 0: for x>0, 34x−1≈4xln3; for x<0, 3−4x−1≈−4xln3=4∣x∣ln3. So 34∣x∣−1≈(4ln3)∣x∣ — itself a corner (like c∣x∣), not smoothed to a higher power. …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-12-AN1 markMCQQ.A function f:R→R defined as f(x)=⎩⎨⎧∣x∣x,4x∣x∣,x∣x∣,x<−2−2≤x≤2x>2 is (A) Differentiable for all real x (B) Differentiable for all real x except for x=−2,0,2 (C) Continuous for all real x and differentiable for all real x except for x=−2,2 (D) Continuous for all real x except for x=0,−2,2 and differentiable at x=−2,0,2
›Reveal solutionSolution
The function is continuous everywhere (the pieces meet exactly at x=±2), but the slope jumps at x=±2 (constant slope 0 outside vs. slope ±1 from the middle piece) while it is smooth through x=0.
Concept and Intuition
Outside [−2,2] the function reduces to constants (x/∣x∣=∓1), while inside it is the smooth-looking x∣x∣/4, which is actually x2/4 for x≥0 and −x2/4 for x<0 — a function that is itself differentiable everywhere including at 0 (both one-sided derivatives are 0 there). The only risk of a kink is at the junctions x=±2 where the constant pieces meet the quadratic piece.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Continuity at x=−2: left piece value =−1 (constant); middle piece at x=−2: (−2)∣−2∣/4=(−2)(2)/4=−1. Equal — continuous.
- Continuity at x=2: middle piece at x=2: (2)(2)/4=1; right piece value =1. Equal — continuous. So f is continuous for all real x.
- Differentiability at x=0: for 0≤x≤2, f=x2/4, f′=x/2→0 as x→0+; for −2≤x≤0, f=−x2/4, f′=−x/2→0 as x→0−. Both one-sided derivatives are 0 — differentiable at x=0.
- Differentiability at x=−2: left piece (constant −1) has derivative 0; middle piece derivative at x=−2+ is −x/2=1. 0=1 — NOT differentiable. …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-20-AN1 markMCQQ.In the interval [0,3], the function f(x)=∣x−1∣+∣x−2∣ is (A) Discontinuous (B) differentiable (C) Continuous but not differentiable at x=2 only (D) Continuous but not differentiable at x=1 and x=2
›Reveal solutionSolution
∣x−1∣+∣x−2∣ is continuous everywhere but has corners at the two points where the absolute values "switch," x=1 and x=2 — (D).
Concept and Intuition
∣x−a∣ is continuous everywhere (as a composition of continuous functions) but fails to be differentiable exactly at x=a, where its graph has a sharp corner (the left and right slopes are −1 and +1, which don't match). A sum of such functions is continuous everywhere (sum of continuous functions) and non-differentiable at each individual corner point (unless the kinks happen to cancel, which they don't here).
Step-by-Step Solution
- Break [0,3] into three pieces based on where x−1 and x−2 change sign: [0,1), [1,2), [2,3].
- On [0,1): x−1<0,x−2<0, so f(x)=(1−x)+(2−x)=3−2x.
- On (1,2): x−1>0,x−2<0, so f(x)=(x−1)+(2−x)=1 (constant!).
- On (2,3]: both positive, f(x)=(x−1)+(x−2)=2x−3.
- All three pieces match up in value at the junctions (f(1)=1 from both sides, f(2)=1 from both sides), so f is continuous throughout. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-26-FN1 markMCQQ.If f(x)=2+∣sin−1x∣ and A={x∈R∣f′(x) exists}, then A= (A) {0} (B) [−1,1] (C) (−∞,−1)∪(1,∞) (D) (−1,0)∪(0,1)
›Reveal solutionSolution
f(x)=2+∣sin−1x∣ fails to be differentiable at x=0 (a corner from the absolute value) and at x=±1 (vertical tangent of sin−1x); it's differentiable everywhere else in its domain.
Concept and Intuition
An absolute value ∣g(x)∣ is non-differentiable wherever g(x)=0 and g changes sign there (a corner point), unless g′ also vanishes there smoothly. Also, sin−1x itself is only defined on [−1,1] and has an infinite (vertical) derivative at the endpoints, so no extension of it can be differentiable there.
Step-by-Step Solution
- The domain of f is the domain of sin−1x, namely [−1,1].
- On (0,1], sin−1x>0, so f(x)=2+sin−1x, and f′(x)=1−x21 — defined for x∈(0,1) but →∞ as x→1−.
- On [−1,0), sin−1x<0, so f(x)=2−sin−1x, and f′(x)=−1−x21 — defined for x∈(−1,0) but →−∞ as x→−1+.
- At x=0: left derivative =−1−01=−1, right derivative =1−01=1. These disagree, so f′(0) does not exist (a corner, exactly like ∣x∣). …
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-14-FN1 markMCQQ.The set of all the points at which f(x)=∣2−∣x∣∣ is continuous but not differentiable is (A) {0,1,2} (B) {−1,0,2} (C) {−2,0,2} (D) {−2,1,2}
›Reveal solutionSolution
∣2−∣x∣∣ is continuous everywhere but fails to be differentiable exactly where an absolute value "folds" the graph — at x=0 and at x=±2 where 2−∣x∣=0.
Concept and Intuition
An absolute value ∣g(x)∣ is always continuous if g is continuous (composition with the continuous function ∣⋅∣). But it fails to be differentiable at any point where g itself is not differentiable, and additionally at any point where g(x)=0 with g′=0 there (because ∣g(x)∣ has a sharp corner/fold exactly where g crosses zero). We must check both sources of non-differentiability for f(x)=∣2−∣x∣∣.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let g(x)=2−∣x∣. Then f(x)=∣g(x)∣.
- g(x) itself is not differentiable at x=0 because of the inner ∣x∣ (corner there), and g(0)=2=0, so near x=0, g(x)>0 and f(x)=g(x) — f inherits g's corner at x=0.
- g(x)=0 when ∣x∣=2, i.e. at x=2 and x=−2. Near these points g is differentiable (it's just 2−x or 2+x, linear pieces with nonzero slope ∓1), but since g changes sign there, f=∣g∣ has a "V"-shaped corner at each of x=2 and x=−2. …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-20-FN1 markMCQQ.For x<0,dxd[∣x∣x]= (A) (−x)x[−1+log(−x)] (B) (−x)x[1+log(−x)] (C) (−x)x[1−log(−x)] (D) (−x)x[−1−log(−x)]
›Reveal solutionSolution
This is logarithmic differentiation of a variable-base, variable-exponent function; for x<0 the base becomes −x>0 so it's well defined.
Concept and Intuition
Whenever the base and the exponent both depend on x (as in f(x)g(x)), take logarithms first to turn the power into a product, then differentiate implicitly. Here for x<0, ∣x∣=−x is positive, so ∣x∣x=(−x)x is a genuine positive real number and logarithmic differentiation applies cleanly.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Let y=(−x)x for x<0. Take natural log: logy=xlog(−x).
- Differentiate both sides with respect to x: yy′=dxd[xlog(−x)].
- By product rule: dxd[xlog(−x)]=log(−x)+x⋅dxdlog(−x).
- dxdlog(−x)=−x1⋅(−1)=x1, so x⋅x1=1. …
- AP EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-07-FN1 markMCQQ.Which of the following is differentiable at x = 0 ? (A) f(x)=cos∣x∣+∣x∣ (B) f(x)=sin∣x∣+∣x∣ (C) f(x)=cos∣x∣−∣x∣ (D) f(x)=sin∣x∣−∣x∣
›Reveal solutionSolution
Writing each function separately for x>0 and x<0 and comparing the one-sided derivatives at 0, only f(x)=sin∣x∣−∣x∣ has equal left- and right-hand derivatives (both 0), making it the only one differentiable at x=0.
Concept and Intuition
A function built from ∣x∣ typically has a "kink" at x=0 because dxd∣x∣ jumps from −1 to +1. But if the other piece of the function also contributes a matching jump that exactly cancels this discontinuity in slope, the combination can become smooth at 0 even though ∣x∣ alone is not differentiable there. Since cos∣x∣≡cosx (cosine is even), only ∣x∣'s own kink matters in options (A) and (C). Since sin∣x∣ is itself non-smooth at 0 (behaving like ∣x∣ for options B and D), we must check each combination directly.
Step-by-Step Solution
- (A) f=cos∣x∣+∣x∣=cosx+∣x∣. Right derivative at 0: −sin(0)+1=1. Left derivative: −sin(0)−1=−1. Not equal — not differentiable.
- (B) f=sin∣x∣+∣x∣. For x>0: f=sinx+x,f′=cosx+1→2. For x<0: ∣x∣=−x,sin∣x∣=sin(−x)=−sinx, so f=−sinx−x,f′=−cosx−1→−2. Not equal.
- (C) f=cos∣x∣−∣x∣=cosx−∣x∣. Right derivative: −sin(0)−1=−1. Left derivative: −sin(0)+1=1. Not equal. …
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-16-FN1 markMCQQ.Let f(x)=∣x−3∣+∣x+5∣ and A={a∈R:limx→ax−af(x)−f(a) exists}. Then the number of real numbers which are in (−∞,−3)∪(5,∞) but not in A is (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 3
›Reveal solutionSolution
The only non-differentiable points of f(x)=∣x−3∣+∣x+5∣ are the two kinks x=3,−5; checking which of these fall inside (−∞,−3)∪(5,∞) shows only x=−5 does, giving the count 1.
Concept and Intuition
f is piecewise linear with corners exactly where each absolute-value term changes sign, i.e. at x=3 and x=−5. Everywhere else it's a sum of linear pieces, hence differentiable. So A=R∖{−5,3}, and we just need to check how many of the excluded points {−5,3} actually lie in the specified region (−∞,−3)∪(5,∞).
Step-by-Step Solution
- f(x)=∣x−3∣+∣x+5∣ is non-differentiable exactly at x=3 and x=−5 (the two "kink" points of the absolute values).
- So the points not in A (points where the limit does not exist) are {−5,3}.
- Check x=−5: is −5∈(−∞,−3)∪(5,∞)? Since −5<−3, yes, −5∈(−∞,−3). …
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-15-AN1 markMCQQ.If f(x)=∣x−5∣+∣x+5∣+∣x−4∣+∣x+4∣, then f′(−1)+f′(6)f′(1)−f′(−6)= (A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 4/5 (D) 3/2
›Reveal solutionSolution
Each ∣x−a∣ contributes ±1 to f′(x) depending on the sign of x−a; plugging in the four given x-values and simplifying gives the ratio 1.
Concept and Intuition
The derivative of ∣x−a∣ is +1 for x>a and −1 for x<a (undefined only exactly at x=a). So f′(x) for a sum of such terms is just the sum of these signs, evaluated at points away from the corners x=±4,±5.
Step-by-Step Solution
- f(x)=∣x−5∣+∣x+5∣+∣x−4∣+∣x+4∣, so f′(x)=sgn(x−5)+sgn(x+5)+sgn(x−4)+sgn(x+4).
- At x=1: signs of (1−5,1+5,1−4,1+4)=(−,+,−,+)⇒f′(1)=−1+1−1+1=0.
- At x=−6: signs of (−11,−1,−10,−2) all negative ⇒f′(−6)=−1−1−1−1=−4.
- At x=−1: signs of (−6,4,−5,3)=(−,+,−,+)⇒f′(−1)=−1+1−1+1=0. …
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