Skip to content
NCERT Exemplar · Q85

Q.If f(x)=x2sin⁡1xf(x) = x^2 \sin \dfrac{1}{x}, where x≠0x \ne 0, then the value of the function ff at x=0x = 0, so that the function is continuous at x=0x = 0, is
(A) 00
(B) −1-1
(C) 11
(D) none of these

CBSEMCQ· 1mImportance★★★★★
94% · 265/281 Questions
🔒 Locked · start free trial →

You're viewing a preview — the full solution, concept, methods & PYQ mapping are locked.

Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →

To make f(x)f(x) continuous at x=0x=0, we need lim⁡x→0f(x)=f(0)\lim_{x\to 0} f(x) = f(0). Since x2sin⁡(1/x)x^2 \sin(1/x) is squeezed between −x2-x^2 and x2x^2, its limit is 00. So f(0)f(0) must be 00.

The core idea here is continuity at a point. A function ff is continuous at x=ax = a if three things hold: f(a)f(a) is defined, lim⁡x→af(x)\lim_{x \to a} f(x) exists, and they are equal. Here, the function is given as f(x)=x2sin⁡1xf(x) = x^2 \sin \frac{1}{x} for x≠0x \neq 0, and we are free to choose f(0)f(0) so that continuity holds. That means we must find what lim⁡x→0f(x)\lim_{x \to 0} f(x) equals, and then set f(0)f(0) to that value.

The tricky part is the sin⁡(1/x)\sin(1/x) term. As xx approaches 00, 1/x1/x blows up to infinity, so sin⁡(1/x)\sin(1/x) oscillates wildly between −1-1 and 11. It does not have a limit. But notice: x2x^2 is shrinking to 00. So we have a product: something that oscillates but stays bounded, multiplied by something that goes to zero. That is a classic situation for the Squeeze Theorem.

Let’s work through it step by step.

  1. Set up the inequality. For any real number tt, we know −1≤sin⁡t≤1-1 \le \sin t \le 1. Here t=1/xt = 1/x, so for all x≠0x \neq 0:

−1≤sin⁡1x≤1-1 \le \sin\frac{1}{x} \le 1

  1. Multiply through by x2x^2. Since x2x^2 is always non-negative (and positive for x≠0x \neq 0), multiplying an inequality by a positive number preserves the direction:

−x2≤x2sin⁡1x≤x2-x^2 \le x^2 \sin\frac{1}{x} \le x^2

  1. Take limits as x→0x \to 0. The left and right functions both have simple limits:

lim⁡x→0(−x2)=0andlim⁡x→0(x2)=0\lim_{x \to 0} (-x^2) = 0 \quad \text{and} \quad \lim_{x \to 0} (x^2) = 0

  1. Apply the Squeeze Theorem. Since f(x)=x2sin⁡(1/x)f(x) = x^2 \sin(1/x) is trapped between two functions that both approach 00, the squeeze theorem tells us: lim⁡x→0x2sin⁡1x=0\lim_{x \to 0} x^2 \sin\frac{1}{x} = 0 …

Unlock everything free for 14 days

  • Full step-by-step solutions
  • Concept-first explanations
  • Methods, shortcuts & mistakes
  • PYQ mapping + timed mock tests

Full access for 14 days. No credit card required.