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Q.Prove that ∫0af(x) dx=∫0af(a−x) dx\displaystyle\int_0^a f(x)\, dx = \int_0^a f(a-x)\, dx, and hence evaluate ∫0π/2xsin⁡x+cos⁡x dx\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2} \dfrac{x}{\sin x + \cos x}\, dx.

CBSECBSE Class XII Board 2019Subjective· 4mImportance★★★★★
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The property ∫0af(x) dx=∫0af(a−x) dx\int_0^a f(x)\,dx = \int_0^a f(a-x)\,dx follows from a simple substitution t=a−xt = a-x. Using it, we rewrite the given integral as an average of two forms, leading to a standard trigonometric integral whose value is π22log⁡(2+1)\frac{\pi}{2\sqrt{2}} \log(\sqrt{2}+1).

Why this property works — the intuition

Imagine you're walking along the xx-axis from 00 to aa. The function f(x)f(x) gives you a value at each point. Now suppose you walk backwards from aa to 00 instead — the function f(a−x)f(a-x) gives you the same values, just in reverse order. Since the total "area under the curve" doesn't care about the direction you traverse the interval, the two integrals must be equal. That's the geometric heart of it.

Formally, the substitution t=a−xt = a-x maps the interval [0,a][0,a] onto itself, but reverses the direction. The dxdx becomes −dt-dt, and the limits swap, giving back the same integral.

∫0af(x) dx=∫0af(a−x) dx\int_0^a f(x)\,dx = \int_0^a f(a-x)\,dx


Proving the property

  1. Set up the substitution.

    Let t=a−xt = a - x. Then x=a−tx = a - t, and dx=−dtdx = -dt.

  2. Change the limits.

    When x=0x = 0, t=at = a. When x=ax = a, t=0t = 0.

  3. Rewrite the integral.

∫0af(x) dx=∫t=at=0f(a−t) (−dt)=∫0af(a−t) dt\int_0^a f(x)\,dx = \int_{t=a}^{t=0} f(a-t)\,(-dt) = \int_0^a f(a-t)\,dt

  1. Rename the dummy variable. Since the variable of integration is a dummy, replace tt with xx:

∫0af(x) dx=∫0af(a−x) dx\int_0^a f(x)\,dx = \int_0^a f(a-x)\,dx

That's the proof — clean and complete.

Tip

This property is incredibly useful when f(x)f(x) and f(a−x)f(a-x) have a nice relationship, like adding to a constant or simplifying a complicated denominator.


Evaluating ∫0π/2xsin⁡x+cos⁡x dx\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{x}{\sin x + \cos x}\, dx

Let

I=∫0π/2xsin⁡x+cos⁡x dxI = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{x}{\sin x + \cos x}\, dx

Step 1: Apply the property with a=π/2a = \pi/2

Using ∫0af(x) dx=∫0af(a−x) dx\int_0^a f(x)\,dx = \int_0^a f(a-x)\,dx, we get:

I=∫0π/2π/2−xsin⁡(π/2−x)+cos⁡(π/2−x) dxI = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\pi/2 - x}{\sin(\pi/2 - x) + \cos(\pi/2 - x)}\, dx

Now sin⁡(π/2−x)=cos⁡x\sin(\pi/2 - x) = \cos x and cos⁡(π/2−x)=sin⁡x\cos(\pi/2 - x) = \sin x, so:

I=∫0π/2π/2−xcos⁡x+sin⁡x dxI = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\pi/2 - x}{\cos x + \sin x}\, dx

Step 2: Add the two expressions for II

We have:

I=∫0π/2xsin⁡x+cos⁡x dxI = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{x}{\sin x + \cos x}\, dx

I=∫0π/2π/2−xsin⁡x+cos⁡x dxI = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\pi/2 - x}{\sin x + \cos x}\, dx

Adding them:

2I=∫0π/2x+(π/2−x)sin⁡x+cos⁡x dx=∫0π/2π/2sin⁡x+cos⁡x dx2I = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{x + (\pi/2 - x)}{\sin x + \cos x}\, dx = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\pi/2}{\sin x + \cos x}\, dx

So:

I=π4∫0π/2dxsin⁡x+cos⁡xI = \frac{\pi}{4} \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{\sin x + \cos x}

Watch out

A common mistake is to forget that the denominator is symmetric — sin⁡x+cos⁡x\sin x + \cos x stays the same when x→π/2−xx \to \pi/2 - x, so the property works beautifully. If the denominator weren't symmetric, you'd need a different trick.

Step 3: Evaluate the remaining integral

We need J=∫0π/2dxsin⁡x+cos⁡xJ = \displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{\sin x + \cos x}.

Rewrite sin⁡x+cos⁡x=2sin⁡(x+π4)\sin x + \cos x = \sqrt{2} \sin\left(x + \frac{\pi}{4}\right).

So: …

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