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Q.If y=Aemx+Benxy = Ae^{mx} + Be^{nx} show that d2ydx2−(m+n)dydx+mny=0\dfrac{d^2y}{dx^2} - (m+n)\dfrac{dy}{dx} + mny = 0.

Karnataka PUCKarnataka II PUC Board 2026Subjective· 5mImportance★★★★★
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Differentiating twice and substituting, the coefficients of AemxAe^{mx} and BenxBe^{nx} each reduce to 00, so the equation holds.

Given y=Aemx+Benxy=Ae^{mx}+Be^{nx}.

First derivative:

dydx=Am emx+Bn enx.\frac{dy}{dx}=Am\,e^{mx}+Bn\,e^{nx}.

Second derivative:

d2ydx2=Am2emx+Bn2enx.\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}=Am^2 e^{mx}+Bn^2 e^{nx}.

Substitute into the LHS:

d2ydx2−(m+n)dydx+mny\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}-(m+n)\frac{dy}{dx}+mny

=(Am2emx+Bn2enx)−(m+n)(Am emx+Bn enx)+mn(Aemx+Benx).=\big(Am^2 e^{mx}+Bn^2 e^{nx}\big)-(m+n)\big(Am\,e^{mx}+Bn\,e^{nx}\big)+mn\big(Ae^{mx}+Be^{nx}\big).

Collect the coefficient of AemxAe^{mx}:

m2−(m+n)m+mn=m2−m2−mn+mn=0.m^2-(m+n)m+mn = m^2-m^2-mn+mn = 0. …

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