Q.Explain quantitatively the order of magnitude difference between the diamagnetic susceptibility of N2 (∼5×10−9) (at STP) and Cu (∼10−5).
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From a Paperclip to a Magnet: The Intuition
You already know that a magnet can pick up iron nails. But what is actually happening inside that nail when it gets near the magnet? And why does a plastic comb, rubbed on hair, pick up tiny bits of paper — but never iron filings?
The answer lies in magnetization — the process by which a material becomes magnetic.
Think of a piece of iron as a chaotic crowd of tiny compass needles. Each needle is an atomic magnetic moment (a tiny magnet, arising from the spin of electrons). In unmagnetized iron, these needles point in random directions. Their magnetic effects cancel out, so the iron as a whole shows no net magnetism.
Now bring a strong magnet close. Its magnetic field acts like a command: "Line up!" The tiny compass needles inside the iron start rotating, aligning themselves with the external field. The more they align, the stronger the iron's own magnetic field becomes. This alignment is magnetization.
Magnetization is not the same as inducing a current. It is a purely magnetic reorientation of atomic dipoles inside a material.
The Precise Definition
Magnetization (M) is the net magnetic dipole moment per unit volume of a material. It tells you how strongly a material is magnetized — how many tiny atomic magnets are aligned, and in which direction.
If a material has N atoms per unit volume, each with an average magnetic moment μavg, then:
M=Nμavg
The SI unit of M is amperes per metre (A/m). Why? Because a magnetic dipole moment has units of A·m², and dividing by volume (m³) gives A/m.
M=volumetotal magnetic dipole moment
How Magnetization Connects to the Magnetic Field
When a material gets magnetized, it produces its own magnetic field. The total magnetic field B inside the material is the sum of:
- The external applied field H (caused by free currents, like the current in a solenoid)
- The material's response — the magnetization M
The fundamental relation is:
B=μ0(H+M)
where μ0=4π×10−7T⋅m/A is the permeability of free space.
Do not confuse H (magnetic field intensity, or "magnetizing field") with B (magnetic flux density). H is what you apply; M is what the material does; B is the total field you measure.
The Three Kinds of Magnetic Materials
Not all materials respond the same way to an external field. The magnetization M is proportional to H for most materials (at least for small fields):
M=χmH
where χm is the magnetic susceptibility — a dimensionless number that tells you how easily a material magnetizes.
| Material Type | χm | Behaviour | Example |
|---|---|---|---|
| Diamagnetic | Small and negative (≈−10−5) | Weakly repelled by a magnet; M opposes H | Water, copper, bismuth |
| Paramagnetic | Small and positive (≈10−5 to 10−3) | Weakly attracted; M aligns with H | Aluminium, oxygen gas |
| Ferromagnetic | Large and positive (≫1) | Strongly attracted; M can be huge and persists even after H is removed | Iron, nickel, cobalt |
Why this formula?
Magnetic Materials & Magnetization: Why the Key Formulas Hold
Let's build this from the ground up — starting with what magnetization physically means, then deriving the formulas step by step.
1. What is Magnetization (M)?
Magnetization is the net magnetic dipole moment per unit volume of a material.
- Inside a material, atoms act like tiny magnetic dipoles (due to electron spin and orbital motion).
- Without an external field, these dipoles point randomly → net M=0.
- When an external field H is applied, dipoles align partially → net M=0.
Definition:
M=volumenet magnetic dipole moment
Units: A/m (same as H).
2. The Fundamental Relation: B=μ0(H+M)
This is the master equation linking the three magnetic fields:
- B = magnetic flux density (the total field inside the material)
- H = applied magnetic field (due to free currents)
- M = magnetization (response of the material)
- μ0 = permeability of free space (4π×10−7 H/m)
Why this form?
Step 1: In vacuum, there is no material, so M=0. Then:
B=μ0H
Step 2: Inside a material, the dipoles themselves produce an additional field. The total B is the sum of:
- The field due to free currents (μ0H)
- The field due to bound currents (from aligned dipoles), which is μ0M
Hence:
B=μ0H+μ0M=μ0(H+M)
Key insight: M is not an independent field — it's the material's response to H.
3. Magnetic Susceptibility (χm) and Permeability (μ)
For linear, isotropic, homogeneous materials (most common in exams), magnetization is proportional to the applied field:
M=χmH
- χm = magnetic susceptibility (dimensionless)
- χm>0 for paramagnetic materials
- χm<0 for diamagnetic materials
- χm≫1 for ferromagnetic materials (but not linear!)
Derivation of relative permeability μr:
Substitute M=χmH into the master equation:
B=μ0(H+χmH)=μ0(1+χm)H
Define:
μr=1+χm(relative permeability)
μ=μ0μr(absolute permeability)
Thus:
B=μH
Why this matters: It shows that the material simply scales the applied field by a factor μr.
4. Why χm Has Different Signs (Physical Reasoning)
| Material Type | χm | Why? |
|---|---|---|
| Diamagnetic | χm<0 (small, ~10−5) | Applied field induces opposing dipole moments (Lenz's law at atomic level). M opposes H. |
| Paramagnetic | χm>0 (small, ~10−3) | Permanent atomic dipoles align partially with H. Thermal agitation fights alignment. |
The key idea is that diamagnetic susceptibility (χ) depends on the number of atoms per unit volume and the mean square radius of the electron orbits. For a gas at STP, the atomic density is far lower than in a solid metal.
Step 1: Susceptibility formula
For a diamagnetic material, χ=−6mc2Ne2⟨r2⟩, where N is the number of atoms per unit volume and ⟨r2⟩ is the mean square orbital radius.
Step 2: Compare densities
At STP, 1 mole of N2 occupies 22.4 L, so NN2≈22.4×1036.02×1023≈2.7×1019 atoms/cm3.
For Cu (density ≈9 g/cm3, atomic mass 63.5), NCu≈63.59×6.02×1023≈8.5×1022 atoms/cm3.
Thus NCu/NN2≈3×103.
Step 3: Compare orbital radii …
The huge difference arises because diamagnetic susceptibility depends on the number density of atoms and the size of the electron orbits. In a gas like N₂ at STP, atoms are far apart (low density), while in a solid metal like Cu, atoms are tightly packed (high density). Additionally, copper has more electrons per atom and larger effective orbital radii, giving a much larger induced magnetic moment per atom. The combined effect yields a factor of about 104 — exactly the observed gap.
Why this approach works
Diamagnetism is a universal property: when an external magnetic field is applied, it slightly alters the orbital motion of electrons, inducing a tiny magnetic moment that opposes the field. The size of this induced moment per atom is proportional to the square of the orbital radius and the number of electrons. But the bulk susceptibility χ also depends on how many atoms are packed into a given volume — the number density.
So the order-of-magnitude difference between N₂ gas and solid Cu comes from two separate factors:
- Number density — how many atoms per cubic metre.
- Atomic diamagnetic response — how large the induced moment is per atom.
Let’s quantify each.
Step-by-step calculation
1. Number density at STP vs. in a solid
For an ideal gas at STP (0 °C, 1 atm), one mole occupies 22.4 L = 2.24×10−2m3.
Number of molecules per mole is Avogadro’s number NA=6.02×1023.
So number density of N₂ molecules:
nN2=2.24×10−26.02×1023≈2.69×1025m−3
For copper: density ρ=8.96g/cm3=8960kg/m3, atomic mass M=63.5g/mol=0.0635kg/mol.
Number density of Cu atoms:
nCu=MρNA=0.06358960×6.02×1023≈8.5×1028m−3
Ratio of number densities:
nN2nCu≈2.69×10258.5×1028≈3.2×103
So just from packing, Cu has about 3000 times more atoms per unit volume than N₂ gas.
This factor alone already accounts for most of the difference — but not all. The remaining factor comes from the atomic diamagnetic response.
2. Atomic diamagnetic susceptibility per atom
The classical Langevin formula for diamagnetic susceptibility per atom (or molecule) is:
χatom=−6meμ0e2∑⟨r2⟩
where ∑⟨r2⟩ is the sum of mean-square orbital radii of all electrons in the atom/molecule.
For a diatomic N₂ molecule, each nitrogen atom has 7 electrons, so 14 electrons total. But the electrons are tightly bound in small orbitals (first-row element). A typical ⟨r2⟩ for a 2p electron in N is about (0.5A˚)2=0.25×10−20m2. Summing over all electrons gives roughly:
∑⟨r2⟩N2∼14×0.25×10−20≈3.5×10−20m2
For copper (atomic number 29), the inner electrons (up to 3d) have smaller radii, but the outer 4s electron and especially the 3d electrons have larger orbits. A typical ⟨r2⟩ for a 3d electron in Cu is about (1.0A˚)2=1.0×10−20m2, and there are 10 such d-electrons. The 4s electron has an even larger orbit, but it contributes less because it’s only one electron. A rough sum:
∑⟨r2⟩Cu∼(core electrons: small)+10×1.0×10−20≈1.0×10−19m2
That’s about 3 times larger than for N₂. …
Method: Estimating Order-of-Magnitude Differences in Diamagnetic Susceptibility
Use this whenever you're asked to explain why the susceptibility of one diamagnetic substance is so much larger or smaller than another's — a gas vs. a solid, or two solids of very different density.
Steps
Step 1: Start from the microscopic (Langevin) formula
The diamagnetic susceptibility of a single atom, and hence the bulk susceptibility, is
χ=nχatom,χatom=−6meμ0e2∑⟨r2⟩,
where n is the number density of atoms/molecules and ∑⟨r2⟩ is the sum of mean-square orbital radii of the electrons in that atom. This tells you χ depends on exactly two things: how densely packed the atoms are, and how large the electron orbits are.
Step 2: Compute the number density of each substance
- For a gas at STP, use the molar volume: n=VmNA, with Vm=22.4 L/mol.
- For a solid, use its mass density and molar mass: n=MρNA.
Take the ratio n2/n1 — for a solid vs. a gas this ratio is typically of order 103, because a solid packs atoms roughly a thousand times more densely than a gas at atmospheric pressure.
Step 3: Compare the orbital size (electron count/radius) per atom …
- COMEDK 2026Set 2026-A1 markMCQQ.The material selected for making a permanent magnet should have: (A) High coercivity, low permeability and high retentivity (B) Low coercivity, low permeability and low retentivity (C) Low coercivity, low permeability and high retentivity (D) High coercivity, high permeability and high retentivity
›Reveal solutionSolution
[!TLDR]
A permanent magnet needs high coercivity, high retentivity and high permeability.
Concept
Magnetic hysteresis (CBSE Class 12 magnetism) tells us that a permanent-magnet material should retain strong magnetism and resist demagnetisation. The relevant properties are retentivity (residual magnetism after removing the field), coercivity (reverse field needed to demagnetise), and permeability (ease of magnetisation).
Solution
For a good permanent magnet:
- High retentivity — so it keeps a strong magnetisation after the magnetising field is removed.
- High coercivity — so it is not easily demagnetised by stray fields, heating or handling.
- High permeability — so it can be magnetised strongly to begin with. …
- COMEDK 2026Set 2026-M1 markMCQQ.Paramagnetic substances A. Move from a region of strong magnetic field to weak magnetic field B. Has susceptibility less than zero C. Attract strongly towards external magnetic field D. Align themselves along the directions of external magnetic field (A) B (B) D (C) C (D) A
›Reveal solutionSolution
Paramagnetic substances have a small positive susceptibility and are weakly attracted into a magnetic field, aligning with it — the correct description is that they align along the external field, so the answer is (B) D.
Concept & Intuition
Paramagnetism arises from unpaired electrons in atoms. Each unpaired electron acts like a tiny bar magnet. In an external magnetic field, these atomic magnets experience a torque that tries to align them with the field. However, thermal agitation fights this alignment, so the net effect is weak and temporary — the material is weakly attracted into the field (unlike ferromagnets, which are strongly attracted). Crucially, the susceptibility χ is small and positive (typically 10−5 to 10−3), meaning the magnetization is in the same direction as the applied field. This is the opposite of diamagnetic materials, which have negative susceptibility and are repelled.
Let’s examine each option:
-
Option A: “Move from a region of strong magnetic field to weak magnetic field”
This describes diamagnetic behavior. Diamagnets are repelled by magnetic fields, so they seek weaker field regions. Paramagnets are attracted into stronger field regions (because their induced magnetization adds to the field). So A is false for paramagnets.
-
Option B: “Has susceptibility less than zero”
Susceptibility χ<0 is the hallmark of diamagnetism. For paramagnetism, χ>0 (though small). So B is false.
-
Option C: “Attract strongly towards external magnetic field” …
-
- COMEDK 2025Set 2025-E1 markMCQQ.A metal rod of susceptibility 799 is subjected to a magnetising field of 2000Am−1. The permeability of the material of the rod is: (Given μ0=4π×10−7TmA−1 ) (A) 4.2π×10−7TmA−1 (B) 3.2π×10−4TmA−1 (C) 2.4π×10−5TmA−1 (D) 80π×10−7TmA−1
›Reveal solutionSolution
The permeability μ is found from μ=μ0(1+χ), where χ=799 and μ0=4π×10−7. This gives μ=3.2π×10−4TmA−1, matching option (B).
The key concept here is the relationship between magnetic susceptibility, permeability, and the permeability of free space. Susceptibility (χ) tells us how much a material magnetizes in response to an external field. Permeability (μ) measures how easily a magnetic field can form inside the material. They are linked by the simple formula μ=μ0(1+χ). Since the rod is a linear, isotropic material (typical for such problems), this relation is exact.
- Recall the defining formula The magnetic permeability of a material is given by:
μ=μ0(1+χ)
where μ0 is the permeability of free space and χ is the magnetic susceptibility. This comes from the fact that the total magnetic field inside the material is the sum of the applied field and the induced magnetization.
- Plug in the given values We have χ=799 and μ0=4π×10−7TmA−1. So:
μ=(4π×10−7)×(1+799)
μ=(4π×10−7)×800
- Simplify the arithmetic
μ=4π×10−7×8×102
μ=32π×10−5TmA−1
But 32×10−5=3.2×10−4, so:
μ=3.2π×10−4TmA−1 …
- COMEDK 2025Set 2025-M1 markMCQQ.Which of the following is not a characteristic of diamagnetism? (A) The material moves from a region of strong magnetic field to weak magnetic field. (B) The origin of diamagnetism is the spin of electrons. (C) Their magnetic susceptibility is small and negative. (D) Diamagnetic materials are repelled by bar magnets.
›Reveal solutionSolution
Diamagnetism arises from induced orbital currents, not electron spin; the statement that its origin is electron spin is false, making (B) the correct answer.
The key to this question is understanding the physical origin of diamagnetism. Unlike paramagnetism or ferromagnetism, which depend on permanent magnetic moments from unpaired electron spins, diamagnetism is a universal but weak effect caused by the orbital motion of electrons. When an external magnetic field is applied, it induces a change in the orbital motion of electrons (via Lenz’s law), creating a tiny opposing magnetic moment. This is why diamagnetic materials are repelled by magnetic fields.
Let’s examine each option:
-
Option (A): “The material moves from a region of strong magnetic field to weak magnetic field.”
This is true. Because the induced moment opposes the field, a diamagnetic material experiences a force toward weaker field regions (like a magnet repelling it). This is a classic demonstration—e.g., a diamagnetic bismuth sample is pushed away from a magnet’s pole.
-
Option (B): “The origin of diamagnetism is the spin of electrons.”
This is false. Electron spin is the source of paramagnetism and ferromagnetism (when spins align). Diamagnetism originates from the orbital angular momentum of electrons—specifically, the induced change in orbital motion. Spin plays no role in pure diamagnetism. This is the incorrect characteristic.
-
Option (C): “Their magnetic susceptibility is small and negative.” …
-
- COMEDK 2024Set 2024-A1 markMCQQ.The magnetic susceptibility of an ideal diamagnetic substance is (A) −1 (B) ∞ (C) 0 (D) 1
›Reveal solutionSolution
For an ideal diamagnetic material, the induced magnetic moment opposes the applied field, leading to a small negative susceptibility; the correct value is –1 only for a perfect superconductor, but for an ideal diamagnetic substance (like a superconductor in the Meissner state) the susceptibility is –1, so option (A) is correct.
The key concept here is magnetic susceptibility χ, which measures how much a material becomes magnetized in an external magnetic field. For diamagnetic materials, the induced magnetization is opposite to the field, giving χ<0. An ideal diamagnetic substance is one that perfectly expels magnetic flux — this is the Meissner effect in superconductors. In such a case, the internal magnetic field is zero, which forces the magnetization M to exactly cancel the applied field H, so M=−H. Since χ=M/H, we get χ=−1.
Let’s walk through the reasoning step by step:
-
Recall the definition of magnetic susceptibility
The volume magnetic susceptibility is χ=HM, where M is magnetization (magnetic moment per unit volume) and H is the applied magnetic field strength. For any material, χ can be positive (paramagnetic/ferromagnetic) or negative (diamagnetic).
-
Understand diamagnetism
In ordinary diamagnets (e.g., bismuth, water), the induced magnetic moment is weak and opposite to the field, so χ is small and negative (typically around −10−5). These are not ideal diamagnets.
-
Define “ideal diamagnetic substance”
In physics, an ideal diamagnet is one that exhibits perfect diamagnetism — it completely expels magnetic flux from its interior. This is the defining property of a superconductor in the Meissner state. Inside such a material, the magnetic flux density B=0.
-
Relate B, H, and M
The fundamental relation is B=μ0(H+M). For an ideal diamagnet, B=0 inside, so:
0=μ0(H+M)⇒M=−H.
- Compute susceptibility …
-
- COMEDK 2024Set 2024-A1 markMCQQ.The percentage increase in magnetic field B when the space within a current carrying solenoid is filled with a medium of susceptibility 0.004 is (A) 0.04 (B) 4 (C) 40 (D) 0.4
›Reveal solutionSolution
Filling the solenoid with a medium of susceptibility χ raises B by a factor (1+χ), so the percentage increase is χ×100=0.4%.
With vacuum, B0=μ0H. With a medium of susceptibility χ,
B=μ0(1+χ)H.
Fractional increase: …
- COMEDK 2024Set 2024-E1 markMCQQ.For a paramagnetic material, the dependence of the magnetic susceptibility χ on the absolute temperature is given as (A) Independent of T (B) X∝T21 (C) X∝T (D) X∝T1
›Reveal solutionSolution
By Curie's law the paramagnetic susceptibility is inversely proportional to absolute temperature, χ=C/T.
In a paramagnet the atomic magnetic moments tend to align with the applied field, but thermal agitation opposes this alignment. Curie's law quantifies the balance:
χ=TC …
- COMEDK 2024Set 2024-M1 markMCQQ.Steel is preferred to soft iron for making permanent magnets because, (A) Susceptibility of steel is less than one (B) Permeability of steel is slightly greater than soft iron (C) Steel has more coercivity than soft iron (D) Steel is more paramagnetic
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key idea is that a permanent magnet must resist demagnetization, which requires high coercivity — steel has higher coercivity than soft iron, making it the better choice.
The question asks why steel is preferred over soft iron for making permanent magnets. The answer hinges on the magnetic properties that determine how well a material retains its magnetization after the external field is removed.
Concept and Intuition
A permanent magnet needs to hold its magnetic field strongly even when exposed to opposing fields or mechanical shocks. The property that measures this resistance to demagnetization is coercivity — the strength of the reverse magnetic field needed to reduce the material’s magnetization to zero. Soft iron has low coercivity (it magnetizes easily but also demagnetizes easily), while steel (an alloy of iron with carbon) has much higher coercivity due to internal structural defects that pin magnetic domain walls. Thus, steel makes a "hard" magnet that stays magnetized.
Let’s evaluate each option:
-
Option (A): Susceptibility of steel is less than one
Magnetic susceptibility χ measures how easily a material magnetizes. For ferromagnetic materials like steel and soft iron, χ is much greater than 1 (typically hundreds or thousands). While steel’s susceptibility is indeed lower than soft iron’s, this is not the reason for preferring it — in fact, lower susceptibility means it’s harder to magnetize, but that’s a trade-off for stability. The statement is true but irrelevant to the advantage for permanent magnets.
-
Option (B): Permeability of steel is slightly greater than soft iron
Permeability μ=μ0(1+χ) is actually higher for soft iron (which has very high permeability, used in electromagnets). Steel has lower permeability. So this statement is false — steel’s permeability is less, not greater.
-
Option (C): Steel has more coercivity than soft iron …
-
- KCET 2023Set A-31 markMCQQ.The Curie temperatures of Cobalt and iron are 1400K and 1000K respectively. At T=1600K, the ratio of magnetic susceptibility of Cobalt to that of iron is (A) 3 (B) 57 (C) 75 (D) 31
›Reveal solutionSolution
Both metals are above their Curie temperatures at 1600 K, so use the Curie–Weiss law χ∝1/(T−TC) and take the ratio.
Step 1 — Which law applies?
At T=1600 K, we have T>TC for both Cobalt (1400 K) and Iron (1000 K). Above the Curie temperature a ferromagnetic material loses its spontaneous magnetisation and behaves as a paramagnet, whose susceptibility follows the Curie–Weiss law:
χ=T−TCC
where C is the (material) Curie constant.
Step 2 — Write the two susceptibilities
χCo=1600−1400C=200C,χFe=1600−1000C=600C
(The problem intends the same Curie constant, so it cancels in the ratio — this is the standard KCET/NCERT treatment.)
Step 3 — Take the ratio …
- COMEDK 2023Set 2023-E1 markMCQQ.The magnetic permeability 'μ' a of a paramagnetic substance is : (A) μ>1 (B) μ=1 (C) μ=0 (D) μ is infinite
›Reveal solutionSolution
So for a paramagnetic substance the permeability satisfies mu > 1 (in units of mu_0).
Concept: relative permeability mu_r = 1 + chi, where chi is the magnetic susceptibility.
- Diamagnetic: chi is small and NEGATIVE, so mu_r slightly less than 1 (mu < mu_0).
- Paramagnetic: chi is small and POSITIVE, so mu_r slightly GREATER than 1 (mu > mu_0). The material is weakly attracted and slightly concentrates the field lines. …
- KCET 2021Set B-21 markMCQQ.The physical quantity which is measured in the unit of wb A−1 is (A) Self inductance (B) Mutual inductance (C) Magnetic flux (D) Both (A) and (B)
›Reveal solutionSolution
Weber per ampere is the henry — the unit of inductance — and both self and mutual inductance are flux-linkage per unit current.
Step 1 — Self inductance.
For a single coil, the flux linkage is proportional to its own current:
Nϕ=LI⇒L=INϕ
So the unit of L is ampereweber=WbA−1=henry (H).
Step 2 — Mutual inductance.
For two coupled coils, the flux linked with coil 2 due to the current in coil 1 is
N2ϕ2=MI1⇒M=I1N2ϕ2
Again the unit is ampereweber=WbA−1=henry.
Step 3 — Rule out magnetic flux. …
- COMEDK 2021Set 20211 markMCQQ.The relative permeability of iron is 6000. Its magnetic susceptibility is (A) 5999 (B) 6001 (C) 6000 × 10−7 (D) 6000 × 107
›Reveal solutionSolution
(Susceptibility is dimensionless; the 10^-7 forms are wrong - that factor belongs to mu0.)
Concept: relation between relative permeability and magnetic susceptibility.
mu_r = 1 + chi => chi = mu_r - 1.
chi = 6000 - 1 = 5999. …
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