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NCERT Exemplar · Q18

Q.Do magnetic forces obey Newton's third law. Verify for two current elements dl⃗1=dl i^d\vec{l}_1 = dl\,\hat{i} located at the origin and dl⃗2=dl j^d\vec{l}_2 = dl\,\hat{j} located at (0,R,0)(0, R, 0). Both carry current II.

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Magnetic forces between isolated current elements do not, in general, obey Newton's third law. For the given perpendicular elements, the force on element 1 due to element 2 is zero, while the force on element 2 due to element 1 is nonzero - clearly not equal and opposite.

Why Newton's third law can fail here

Newton's third law requires that the force of A on B be equal and opposite to the force of B on A. This holds for complete, closed circuits (verified experimentally), but it is not guaranteed for two isolated current elements dl⃗1d\vec{l}_1, dl⃗2d\vec{l}_2 considered on their own - because the magnetic force each element feels depends on the relative orientation of the two elements through a cross product, and that geometric relationship is not symmetric in general. (The "missing" momentum is actually carried by the electromagnetic field itself - but that is beyond what we need to verify here.)

Setting up the geometry

  • Element 1: dl⃗1=dl i^d\vec{l}_1 = dl\,\hat{i}, located at the origin (0,0,0)(0,0,0).
  • Element 2: dl⃗2=dl j^d\vec{l}_2 = dl\,\hat{j}, located at (0,R,0)(0,R,0).

Both carry current II. The unit vector from 1 to 2 is r^12=j^\hat{r}_{12}=\hat{j} (distance RR); the unit vector from 2 to 1 is r^21=−j^\hat{r}_{21}=-\hat{j} (same distance RR).

Force on element 2 due to element 1

Field at element 2's location, produced by element 1 (Biot-Savart):

dB⃗1=μ0I4πdl⃗1×r^12R2=μ0I4πR2 dl (i^×j^)=μ0I dl4πR2k^.d\vec{B}_1 = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi}\frac{d\vec{l}_1\times\hat{r}_{12}}{R^2} = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi R^2}\, dl\,(\hat{i}\times\hat{j}) = \frac{\mu_0 I\,dl}{4\pi R^2}\hat{k}.

Force on element 2 in this field:

dF⃗2 due to 1=I dl⃗2×dB⃗1=I(dl j^)×(μ0I dl4πR2k^)=μ0I2dl24πR2(j^×k^)=μ0I2dl24πR2i^.d\vec{F}_{2\text{ due to }1} = I\,d\vec{l}_2\times d\vec{B}_1 = I(dl\,\hat{j})\times\left(\frac{\mu_0 I\,dl}{4\pi R^2}\hat{k}\right) = \frac{\mu_0 I^2 dl^2}{4\pi R^2}(\hat{j}\times\hat{k}) = \frac{\mu_0 I^2 dl^2}{4\pi R^2}\hat{i}.

This is nonzero, pointing along +i^+\hat{i}.

Force on element 1 due to element 2

Field at element 1's location, produced by element 2:

dB⃗2=μ0I4πdl⃗2×r^21R2=μ0I dl4πR2(j^×(−j^))=0,d\vec{B}_2 = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi}\frac{d\vec{l}_2\times\hat{r}_{21}}{R^2} = \frac{\mu_0 I\,dl}{4\pi R^2}\big(\hat{j}\times(-\hat{j})\big) = 0,

since the cross product of any vector with itself (or its negative) is zero.

So the force on element 1:

dF⃗1 due to 2=I dl⃗1×dB⃗2=I dl⃗1×0=0.d\vec{F}_{1\text{ due to }2} = I\,d\vec{l}_1\times d\vec{B}_2 = I\,d\vec{l}_1\times 0 = 0.

Comparing the two …

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