Q. is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →The key idea is to integrate by first substituting to simplify the argument, then applying integration by parts. The correct result is , which matches option (A).
The problem asks for the indefinite integral of . The presence of inside the inverse tangent makes direct integration by parts messy. A clean approach is to change the variable so that the square root disappears, turning the integrand into something we can handle with standard techniques.
Why this works:
When you see inside a function, substituting (so ) often simplifies the expression. Here, becomes , and . The integral then becomes , which is a product of a polynomial and an inverse trigonometric function — a classic candidate for integration by parts.
Let’s go step by step.
- Substitute . Then , so . The integral becomes:
- Apply integration by parts. For , let:
Then:
Integration by parts gives:
- Simplify the remaining integral. The integrand can be rewritten:
So:
Therefore:
- Multiply by 2 and substitute back. …
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