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NCERT Exemplar · Q26

Q.Let f:R→Rf : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} be defined by f(x)=1xf(x) = \dfrac{1}{x}, ∀ x∈R\forall\, x \in \mathbb{R}. Then ff is
(A) one-one
(B) onto
(C) bijective
(D) ff is not defined

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The function f(x)=1/xf(x) = 1/x is not defined at x=0x = 0, so it cannot be a function from R\mathbb{R} to R\mathbb{R}. Hence none of the given options hold — the correct answer is that ff is not defined as a function from R\mathbb{R} to R\mathbb{R}.

The first thing to notice here is that the definition itself has a problem. The function is given as f:R→Rf : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} with f(x)=1xf(x) = \frac{1}{x} for all x∈Rx \in \mathbb{R}. But 1x\frac{1}{x} is not defined when x=0x = 0 — division by zero is undefined in real numbers. So the domain cannot be all of R\mathbb{R}; the function simply does not exist at x=0x = 0.

This is not a subtle point — it is a fatal flaw. Before we even talk about one-one or onto, the function must be well-defined on its entire domain. Since f(0)f(0) is not a real number, ff is not a function from R\mathbb{R} to R\mathbb{R}.

Let’s go through the reasoning step by step.

  1. Check the definition of a function.

    A function f:A→Bf : A \to B must assign to every element of AA a unique element of BB. Here A=RA = \mathbb{R} and B=RB = \mathbb{R}. For x=0x = 0, the expression 10\frac{1}{0} is undefined in R\mathbb{R}. So f(0)f(0) does not exist. Therefore ff is not a function from R\mathbb{R} to R\mathbb{R}.

  2. What about the other options?

    Options (A), (B), and (C) all assume ff is a valid function. But since the function is not defined at x=0x = 0, none of these properties can be meaningfully discussed for the given domain.

  3. Could we restrict the domain? …

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