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NCERT Exemplar · Q35

Q.Let A={0,1}A = \{0, 1\} and N\mathbb{N} be the set of natural numbers. Then the mapping f:N→Af : \mathbb{N} \to A defined by f(2n−1)=0f(2n - 1) = 0, f(2n)=1f(2n) = 1, ∀ n∈N\forall\, n \in \mathbb{N}, is onto.

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The function ff maps odd natural numbers to 00 and even natural numbers to 11. Since every element of the codomain A={0,1}A = \{0,1\} has at least one preimage in N\mathbb{N}, the function is onto (surjective).

The question asks whether the given mapping is onto (also called surjective). A function f:X→Yf: X \to Y is onto if every element of the codomain YY is the image of at least one element from the domain XX. In simpler terms: nothing in YY is left out — every possible output actually occurs.

Here, the codomain is A={0,1}A = \{0, 1\}, a tiny set with just two elements. The domain is N\mathbb{N}, the set of natural numbers (usually {1,2,3,… }\{1,2,3,\dots\}). The function is defined piecewise:

  • For odd numbers: f(2n−1)=0f(2n-1) = 0
  • For even numbers: f(2n)=1f(2n) = 1

Let’s check whether both 00 and 11 are actually hit.

  1. Check for 00:

    Take n=1n = 1. Then 2n−1=12n-1 = 1, and f(1)=0f(1) = 0. So 00 is achieved. (In fact, every odd natural number maps to 00, so there are infinitely many preimages.)

  2. Check for 11:

    Take n=1n = 1 again for the even case: 2n=22n = 2, and f(2)=1f(2) = 1. So 11 is also achieved. (Every even natural number maps to 11.)

  3. Conclusion:

    Both elements of AA have at least one preimage in N\mathbb{N}. Therefore, the function is onto. …

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