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NCERT Exemplar · Q12

Q.Show that a force that does no work must be a velocity dependent force.

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The key idea is that if a force does no work on a particle, its instantaneous power F⃗⋅v⃗\vec{F} \cdot \vec{v} must be zero at all times. This forces F⃗\vec{F} to be perpendicular to v⃗\vec{v}, which means F⃗\vec{F} must depend on v⃗\vec{v} — otherwise, you could always find a path where the force does work.

Why This Approach Works

The statement "a force that does no work must be velocity dependent" is a logical consequence of how work is defined. Work is the line integral of force along a path: W=∫F⃗⋅dr⃗W = \int \vec{F} \cdot d\vec{r}. If this integral is zero for every possible path between two points, then the force must be perpendicular to the displacement at every instant. But displacement is along the velocity direction (dr⃗=v⃗ dtd\vec{r} = \vec{v}\, dt), so F⃗⋅v⃗=0\vec{F} \cdot \vec{v} = 0 at all times.

Now, if F⃗\vec{F} were independent of velocity — say, a function of position only, like gravity — then you could always choose a path where F⃗\vec{F} has a component along the motion, and work would be done. The only way to guarantee F⃗⋅v⃗=0\vec{F} \cdot \vec{v} = 0 for all possible motions is for F⃗\vec{F} to depend on v⃗\vec{v} itself, so that it always adjusts to be perpendicular to the instantaneous velocity.

Tip

The classic example is the magnetic force F⃗=q(v⃗×B⃗)\vec{F} = q(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}). It is always perpendicular to v⃗\vec{v}, so it does no work. But notice: it depends explicitly on v⃗\vec{v} — if you change the velocity, the force changes direction to stay perpendicular.

Step-by-Step Reasoning

  1. Define "does no work" precisely. A force does no work if the work done by it is zero for every possible path the particle takes. Mathematically, for any path from point A to point B:

WAB=∫ABF⃗⋅dr⃗=0W_{AB} = \int_A^B \vec{F} \cdot d\vec{r} = 0

This must hold for all paths, not just one particular path.

  1. Relate work to instantaneous power. Since dr⃗=v⃗ dtd\vec{r} = \vec{v}\, dt, the work integral becomes:

W=∫F⃗⋅v⃗ dtW = \int \vec{F} \cdot \vec{v} \, dt

For this to be zero for all possible motions, the integrand F⃗⋅v⃗\vec{F} \cdot \vec{v} must be zero at every instant. If it were nonzero at any time, you could choose a short path around that instant and get nonzero work. Therefore:

F⃗⋅v⃗=0at all times\vec{F} \cdot \vec{v} = 0 \quad \text{at all times}

  1. Interpret the condition.

    The dot product being zero means F⃗\vec{F} is always perpendicular to v⃗\vec{v}. So the force can never have a component along the direction of motion — it can only change the direction of velocity, not its magnitude.

  2. Why must F⃗\vec{F} depend on v⃗\vec{v}?

    Suppose F⃗\vec{F} did not depend on velocity — say, it was a function of position only: F⃗=F⃗(r⃗)\vec{F} = \vec{F}(\vec{r}). Then for a given position, F⃗\vec{F} is fixed. But the particle's velocity v⃗\vec{v} at that position can be in any direction (depending on initial conditions). For F⃗⋅v⃗=0\vec{F} \cdot \vec{v} = 0 to hold for all possible velocities at that point, F⃗\vec{F} would have to be zero — because a fixed vector cannot be perpendicular to every possible direction. …

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