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Exercise 10.3 · Q14

Q.If either vector a⃗=0⃗\vec{a}=\vec{0} or b⃗=0⃗,\vec{b}=\vec{0}, then a⃗⋅b⃗=0.\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b}=0. But the converse need not be true. Justify your answer with an example.

Sikkim CbseNCERTSubjective· 2mImportance★★★★★
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The dot product being zero does not mean one of the vectors must be the zero vector — two non-zero perpendicular vectors also give a zero dot product. The statement is false as a converse, and the classic counterexample is a⃗=(1,0)\vec{a} = (1,0) and b⃗=(0,1)\vec{b} = (0,1).

The core idea here is about the meaning of the dot product. The dot product a⃗⋅b⃗\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} measures how much two vectors point in the same direction. If either vector is zero, there's nothing to measure — the product is automatically zero. That part is true.

But the converse says: "If the dot product is zero, then at least one vector must be zero." That is not true. Why? Because the dot product can also be zero when two non-zero vectors are perpendicular (orthogonal). In that case, they have zero "overlap" in direction, even though both are perfectly fine non-zero vectors.

Let's walk through this carefully.

  1. Recall the geometric definition of the dot product. For any two vectors a⃗\vec{a} and b⃗\vec{b},

a⃗⋅b⃗=∣a⃗∣ ∣b⃗∣ cos⁡θ\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} = |\vec{a}| \, |\vec{b}| \, \cos \theta

where θ\theta is the angle between them.

If a⃗=0⃗\vec{a} = \vec{0} or b⃗=0⃗\vec{b} = \vec{0}, then ∣a⃗∣=0|\vec{a}| = 0 or ∣b⃗∣=0|\vec{b}| = 0, so the product is 00. That's the given "if" part — correct.

  1. Now examine the converse.

    The converse claims: a⃗⋅b⃗=0  ⟹  a⃗=0⃗\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} = 0 \implies \vec{a} = \vec{0} or b⃗=0⃗\vec{b} = \vec{0}.

    But from the formula, a⃗⋅b⃗=0\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} = 0 can also happen when cos⁡θ=0\cos \theta = 0, i.e., when θ=90∘\theta = 90^\circ (or 270∘270^\circ, etc.). That means the vectors are perpendicular, and neither needs to be zero.

  2. Construct a concrete counterexample.

    Take any two non-zero perpendicular vectors in the plane. The simplest:

a⃗=(1,0),b⃗=(0,1)\vec{a} = (1, 0), \quad \vec{b} = (0, 1)

Compute the dot product:

a⃗⋅b⃗=(1)(0)+(0)(1)=0\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} = (1)(0) + (0)(1) = 0

Yet clearly a⃗≠0⃗\vec{a} \neq \vec{0} and b⃗≠0⃗\vec{b} \neq \vec{0}. …

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