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Question 116 of 148

Q.Show that the function f(x)=tan⁡−1(sin⁡x+cos⁡x)f(x) = \tan^{-1}(\sin x + \cos x), x>0x>0 is strictly increasing in the interval (0,π4)\left(0, \dfrac{\pi}{4}\right).

Tamil Nadu DgeTamil Nadu HSC (DGE) Board 2019Subjective· 3mImportance★★★★★
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The derivative f′(x)=cos⁡x−sin⁡x1+(sin⁡x+cos⁡x)2f'(x)=\dfrac{\cos x-\sin x}{1+(\sin x+\cos x)^2} has a strictly positive numerator on (0,π/4)(0,\pi/4) (since cos⁡x>sin⁡x\cos x>\sin x there) and an always-positive denominator, so ff is strictly increasing on that interval.

  1. Let u=sin⁡x+cos⁡xu=\sin x+\cos x, so f(x)=tan⁡−1uf(x)=\tan^{-1}u.
  2. By the chain rule, f′(x)=11+u2⋅dudx=cos⁡x−sin⁡x1+(sin⁡x+cos⁡x)2f'(x)=\dfrac{1}{1+u^2}\cdot\dfrac{du}{dx} = \dfrac{\cos x-\sin x}{1+(\sin x+\cos x)^2}.
  3. The denominator 1+(sin⁡x+cos⁡x)21+(\sin x+\cos x)^2 is a sum of 11 and a square, hence always ≥1>0\ge 1>0; its sign never affects the sign of f′f'.
  4. Consider the numerator on (0,π4)\left(0,\dfrac{\pi}{4}\right): for 0<x<π40<x<\dfrac{\pi}{4}, we have 0<tan⁡x<10<\tan x<1 (since tan⁡\tan is increasing on this range and tan⁡(π/4)=1\tan(\pi/4)=1), i.e. sin⁡x<cos⁡x\sin x<\cos x.
  5. Therefore cos⁡x−sin⁡x>0\cos x-\sin x>0 for every x∈(0,π4)x\in\left(0,\dfrac{\pi}{4}\right). …

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