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NCERT Exemplar · Q79

Q.State whether True or False: If f⋅gf \cdot g is continuous at x=ax = a, then ff and gg are separately continuous at x=ax = a.

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The statement is False. The product of two discontinuous functions can be continuous — a single counterexample disproves the claim.

The heart of this question is about Continuity of Compositions — specifically, whether continuity of a product forces continuity of each factor. The answer is a clear no, and the reason is intuitive: multiplication can "cancel" discontinuities.

Think of it this way. If ff and gg both have a jump at x=ax = a, but their jumps are such that the product f(x)g(x)f(x)g(x) happens to land on the same value from both sides, the product can be smooth even though each piece is broken. The product function doesn't "remember" the individual discontinuities — it only cares about the combined output.


Step-by-step reasoning

1. Restate the claim precisely

The statement says:

If f⋅gf \cdot g is continuous at x=ax = a, then ff and gg are each continuous at x=ax = a.

We need to decide if this is always true. One counterexample is enough to show it's false.

2. Look for a simple counterexample

The simplest way: make one function discontinuous, and the other also discontinuous, but arrange their product to be constant (and thus continuous everywhere).

Let a=0a = 0 for convenience. Define:

f(x)={1,x≥0−1,x<0f(x) = \begin{cases} 1, & x \ge 0 \\ -1, & x < 0 \end{cases}

g(x)={−1,x≥01,x<0g(x) = \begin{cases} -1, & x \ge 0 \\ 1, & x < 0 \end{cases}

Both ff and gg have a jump at x=0x = 0 — neither is continuous there.

3. Compute the product

For x≥0x \ge 0: f(x)g(x)=(1)(−1)=−1f(x)g(x) = (1)(-1) = -1

For x<0x < 0: f(x)g(x)=(−1)(1)=−1f(x)g(x) = (-1)(1) = -1

So f(x)g(x)=−1f(x)g(x) = -1 for all real xx. That's a constant function, which is continuous at every point, including x=0x = 0.

4. Conclude …

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