Q.A stone dropped from the top of a tower of height 300 m splashes into the water of a pond near the base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top given that the speed of sound in air is 340 m s−1? (g=9.8 m s−2)
Concept understanding — Free Fall
Free Fall: The Intuition
Imagine you're holding a ball in your hand. The moment you let go, it drops. That's free fall — but only the simplest version. The real idea is more interesting.
Think about what happens when you drop a feather and a hammer on Earth. The feather flutters down slowly; the hammer crashes straight down. Most people say the hammer falls faster because it's heavier. That's wrong. The feather is slowed by air resistance — the air pushes up against its large surface area. The hammer, being dense and compact, cuts through air easily.
Now imagine doing the same experiment on the Moon. There's no air. When Apollo 15 astronaut David Scott dropped a hammer and a feather on the Moon, they hit the ground at the exact same time. That's free fall: falling under the influence of gravity alone, with no other forces acting.
The Precise Statement
Free fall is the motion of an object under the sole influence of gravity. No air resistance, no thrust, no tension — only the gravitational force.
In free fall, every object — regardless of mass, shape, or size — accelerates downward at the same rate. On Earth, that acceleration is approximately g=9.8m/s2 (often taken as 10m/s2 for quick calculations).
What This Means Mathematically
If you drop an object from rest, its motion is described by three simple equations (assuming downward is positive):
- Velocity after time t: v=gt
- Distance fallen after time t: s=21gt2
- Relation between velocity and distance: v2=2gs
These come directly from the equations of motion with constant acceleration a=g.
v=u+gtands=ut+21gt2andv2=u2+2gs
For free fall from rest, u=0.
The Key Insight That Confuses Most Students
Free fall does NOT mean "falling downward." An object thrown upward is also in free fall from the moment it leaves your hand until it lands. Why? Because the only force acting on it during that entire journey is gravity (ignoring air). It slows down going up, stops at the top, then speeds up coming down — all with the same constant acceleration g downward.
A common mistake: thinking that an object at the top of its path (where velocity is zero) has zero acceleration. No. At the top, gravity still pulls downward with g=9.8m/s2. The object is still in free fall.
Real-World vs. Ideal Free Fall
On Earth, true free fall is rare because air resistance is almost always present. A skydiver is in free fall only for the first few seconds — until air resistance builds up and balances gravity, at which point they reach terminal velocity and are no longer accelerating. That's not free fall anymore.
In exam problems, unless stated otherwise, you always assume free fall — meaning you ignore air resistance. The only force is gravity, and the acceleration is constant g.
One More Thing: The Direction Convention
You can choose upward as positive or downward as positive — just be consistent. If upward is positive, then g=−9.8m/s2 because gravity pulls downward. If downward is positive, g=+9.8m/s2. Both work; pick one and stick with it.
For problems where an object is dropped from rest, it's easiest to take downward as positive. For problems involving throwing upward, many students find upward as positive more natural. Either is fine — just don't mix signs.
Summary
Free fall is motion under gravity alone. All objects in free fall accelerate at g, regardless of mass. The equations are the same as constant-acceleration motion with a=g. And remember: an object moving upward is in free fall too — gravity doesn't take a break.
Looking up "Free Fall: Definition, Formula & Real-World Examples" or "Free Fall important questions 11" is a common way students land here, and rightly so — free fall is a core part of the Class 11 Physics NCERT/CBSE curriculum. Expect it to reappear, often in a slightly disguised form, across JEE Main, NEET and state engineering/medical entrance exams.
Concept: Free Fall — the stone falls under gravity with zero initial velocity; the splash sound then travels back up at constant speed.
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Time for stone to fall (t1):
s=21gt12
300=21×9.8×t12
t12=9.8600≈61.22
t1≈7.825 s
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Time for sound to travel up (t2):
t2=speeddistance=340300≈0.882 s
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Total time = t1+t2≈7.825+0.882=8.71 s
The splash is heard after approximately 8.71 s.
The splash is heard after the stone hits the water plus the time sound takes to travel back up. The total time is the sum of free-fall time (t1) and sound travel time (t2). The answer is t≈8.7 s.
Why this works
The problem has two distinct phases. First, the stone falls under gravity — that's pure free fall from rest. Second, once it hits the water, the sound of the splash travels upward at constant speed. The total time you hear the splash is simply the sum of these two intervals. The trick is not to confuse the two motions: one is accelerated, the other uniform.
A common mistake is to treat the sound travel as instantaneous or to use the wrong formula for free fall. The stone starts from rest, so u=0, and the distance is 300 m — not 300 km or anything else.
Step-by-step solution
- Time for the stone to fall (t1) The stone is dropped (initial velocity u=0) from height h=300 m. Under constant acceleration g=9.8 m/s2, the equation of motion is:
h=21gt12
Solving for t1:
t1=g2h=9.82×300=9.8600
Compute:
9.8600≈61.2245
So:
t1≈61.2245≈7.826 s
- Time for sound to travel back up (t2) Sound moves at constant speed v=340 m/s over the same height h=300 m. Using speed=timedistance:
t2=vh=340300≈0.8824 s
- Total time until splash is heard The splash is heard after the stone hits and the sound reaches the top:
t=t1+t2≈7.826+0.8824=8.7084 s
You can check the order of magnitude: free fall from 300 m takes about 60≈7.75 s, and sound takes under a second — so the total is just over 8.7 s. If you got something like 7.8 s, you probably forgot the sound travel time.
The splash is heard approximately 8.7 s after the stone is dropped.
Step 1: The stone free-falls from rest through h=300 m: h=21gt12⇒t1=2h/g=600/9.8≈7.825 s.
Step 2: After the splash, sound travels back up the same height at constant speed: t2=h/vsound=300/340≈0.882 s.
Step 3: Total time until the splash is heard: t=t1+t2≈7.825+0.882≈8.71 s.
Shortcut: Keep at least 4 significant figures through each intermediate step before adding — rounding t1 too early (e.g. to 7.826 instead of 7.8246) is what produced the platform's earlier 8.70 s figure instead of the correct 8.71 s.
Showing the 12 most recent of 20 on this concept.
- TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-10-AN1 markMCQQ.If a source of sound initially at rest is moving away from a stationery observer with an acceleration of 11ms−2, then the time taken for the frequency of sound heard by the observer to become 10% less than the frequency of source is (Speed of sound in air =330ms−1) (A) 4.4s (B) 1.1s (C) 2.2s (D) 3.3s
›Reveal solutionSolution
The problem uses the Doppler effect for a source moving away from a stationary observer. The observed frequency drops to 90% of the source frequency when the source reaches a certain speed; using the relation between speed, acceleration, and time gives the answer as 3.3 s, option (D).
Concept & Intuition
When a source of sound moves away from a stationary observer, the observed frequency is lower than the source frequency. The Doppler formula tells us exactly how much lower based on the source’s speed. Here, the source starts from rest and accelerates uniformly, so its speed increases linearly with time. We need the time when the observed frequency is 10% less — meaning it is 90% of the source frequency. That gives a specific source speed, and from acceleration we find the time.
Step-by-step solution
- Write the Doppler effect formula for a source moving away from a stationary observer. For a stationary observer and a moving source, the observed frequency f′ is:
f′=v+vsvf
where v=330m/s is the speed of sound, vs is the speed of the source (positive when moving away), and f is the source frequency.
- Set the condition for a 10% decrease. A 10% decrease means the observed frequency is 90% of the source frequency:
f′=0.9f
Substitute into the Doppler formula:
0.9f=330+vs330f
Cancel f (assuming non-zero):
0.9=330+vs330
- Solve for the source speed vs. Rearranging:
0.9(330+vs)=330
297+0.9vs=330
0.9vs=33
vs=0.933=9330=36.6m/s
So vs=3110m/s exactly.
- Relate speed to time under constant acceleration. The source starts from rest (u=0) and accelerates at a=11m/s2 away from the observer. Using v=u+at:
vs=at
3110=11t
t=3×11110=310=3.3s
- Match with the options. 3.3s is exactly 3.3 s, which corresponds to option (D).
TipA common mistake is to think a 10% decrease means f′=0.1f instead of 0.9f. Always read “10% less than” as 100%−10%=90% of the original.
Watch outAnother pitfall: forgetting that the source is moving away, so the denominator is v+vs, not v−vs. Using the wrong sign gives a different (incorrect) time.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D).
ANSWER: D
- TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-10-FN1 markMCQQ.If t1 is time taken for a body to cool from temperature of 80∘C to 75∘C and t2 is time taken to cool from 75∘C to 70∘C, then t1:t2= (Temperature of surroundings =30∘C) (A) 19:21 (B) 17:19 (C) 7:9 (D) 9:11
›Reveal solutionSolution
By Newton's law of cooling each interval drops the same 5∘C, so the time is inversely proportional to the mean excess temperature: t1:t2=17:19.
Setup. For a small temperature drop, Newton's law of cooling gives
tΔθ=k(θmean−θs),θs=30∘C.
Both intervals have the same drop Δθ=5∘C, so t∝θmean−θs1.
Interval 1 (80→75): mean =77.5∘C, excess =77.5−30=47.5.
t1∝47.55.
Interval 2 (75→70): mean =72.5∘C, excess =72.5−30=42.5.
t2∝42.55.
Ratio.
t2t1=1/42.51/47.5=47.542.5=9585=1917.
✓Final answert1:t2=17:19 — option (B).
- TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-11-FN1 markMCQQ.A body P of mass 3 kg at rest is dropped from a height of 250 m from the ground. At the same moment another body Q of mass 2 kg is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 50ms−1. Both the bodies travel along the same straight line in opposite directions. The velocity of body Q when the centre of mass of the system of the bodies P and Q reaches the maximum height is (Acceleration due to gravity =10ms−2) (A) 25ms−1 (B) 30ms−1 (C) 40ms−1 (D) 20ms−1
›Reveal solutionSolution
The centre of mass starts upward at 20m/s and decelerates at g; it peaks when vcm=0 at t=2s, when Q's velocity is 30m/s — option (B).
Take upward as positive. Only gravity acts, so both bodies have acceleration −g=−10m/s2.
Velocities as functions of time.
vP=−10t(P dropped from rest),vQ=50−10t.
Velocity of the centre of mass (mP=3, mQ=2):
vcm=53(−10t)+2(50−10t)=5100−50t=20−10t.
COM reaches maximum height when vcm=0:
20−10t=0⇒t=2s.
Velocity of Q at that instant.
vQ=50−10(2)=30m/s (upward).
✓Final answerQ's velocity when the COM is at its maximum height is 30m/s — option (B).
- TG EAPCET 2026Set ap-2026-05-04-FN1 markMCQQ.A solid sphere is rolling down without slipping on an inclined plane of length 21 m with an acceleration of 5 ms−2. The time taken by a circular disc to roll down without slipping to reach the bottom from the top of the same inclined plane is (A) 5 s (B) 9 s (C) 3 s (D) 6 s
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key idea is that the acceleration of a rolling body down an incline depends on its moment of inertia. Using the sphere’s acceleration to find the incline’s slope, then applying the disc’s acceleration to find its time, gives 3 seconds.
When a rigid body rolls without slipping down an inclined plane, its linear acceleration is not simply gsinθ (as for a sliding block). Part of the gravitational potential energy goes into rotational kinetic energy, so the acceleration is reduced by a factor that depends on the body’s moment of inertia.
For any rolling object of radius R and moment of inertia I=kmR2 (where k is a dimensionless constant), the acceleration down an incline of angle θ is:
a=1+kgsinθ
This is a standard result derived from combining Newton’s second law for translation and rotation, with the no-slip condition a=αR.
For a solid sphere, k=52, so asphere=1+52gsinθ=75gsinθ.
For a circular disc (or solid cylinder), k=21, so adisc=1+21gsinθ=32gsinθ.
The problem gives the sphere’s acceleration as 5 m/s2. This lets us find gsinθ, which is the same for both bodies on the same incline. Then we can find the disc’s acceleration and, using the constant-acceleration equation, the time to cover the 21 m length.
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Find gsinθ from the sphere’s motion.
For the sphere: as=75gsinθ=5.
So gsinθ=5×57=7 m/s2.
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Find the disc’s acceleration.
For the disc: ad=32gsinθ=32×7=314 m/s2.
-
Find the time taken by the disc.
Both start from rest, so using s=21at2 with s=21 m:
21=21×314×t2
21=37t2
t2=21×73=9
t=3 s
Watch outA common mistake is to forget that the acceleration depends on the moment of inertia and use gsinθ directly. Here, gsinθ=7, not 5 — the sphere’s acceleration is only 5/7 of that value. Using a=7 for the disc would give a wrong, smaller time.
TipNotice that the ratio of accelerations is asphereadisc=5/72/3=1514, so the disc is slightly slower. The time ratio is the inverse square root: tdisc=tsphere×1415, but here we didn’t need the sphere’s time directly.
✓Final answerThe time taken by the disc is 3 s, which corresponds to option (C).
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- TG EAPCET 2026Set ap-2026-05-05-FN1 markMCQQ.One second after projection, the horizontal and vertical velocities of a projectile are found to be equal and after one more second, the motion of the projectile is along the horizontal. The horizontal range of the projectile is (Acceleration due to gravity =10ms−2) (A) 10 m (B) 20 m (C) 30 m (D) 40 m
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key is to use the given velocity conditions to find the initial velocity components. The horizontal range is 40m, so the correct option is (D).
The problem gives you two snapshots of a projectile’s motion. At t=1s, the horizontal and vertical velocity components are equal. One second later — at t=2s — the velocity is purely horizontal, meaning the vertical component has become zero. That second condition tells you exactly when the projectile reaches its highest point: at t=2s. From there, you can work backwards to find the initial vertical velocity, and then use the first condition to find the horizontal velocity. The range follows directly.
Let’s go step by step.
- Interpret the “motion along the horizontal” condition. At t=2s, the projectile’s velocity is horizontal. That means vy=0 at t=2s. For a projectile under constant gravity g=10m/s2 (taking upward as positive), the vertical velocity obeys
vy=uy−gt,
where uy is the initial vertical velocity. Setting vy=0 at t=2s:
0=uy−(10)(2)⇒uy=20m/s.
- Use the “equal velocities” condition at t=1s. At t=1s, the horizontal and vertical speeds are equal. The horizontal velocity is constant: vx=ux (no acceleration horizontally). The vertical velocity at t=1s is
vy(1)=uy−g(1)=20−10=10m/s.
The condition ∣vx∣=∣vy∣ at this instant gives
ux=10m/s.
(Both are positive, so no sign confusion.)
- Find the time of flight. The total time of flight T is twice the time to reach the highest point (since the motion is symmetric if launch and landing are at the same height). The highest point occurs at t=2s, so
T=2×2=4s.
- Compute the horizontal range. Range R=ux×T=10×4=40m.
Watch outA common mistake is to think “equal velocities at t=1s” means the initial velocities are equal — that would give ux=uy, which is false here. Always plug the given time into the vertical velocity equation first.
TipThe phrase “motion along the horizontal” is a clean way of saying the projectile is at the top of its trajectory. That single fact gives you uy directly.
✓Final answerThe horizontal range of the projectile is 40m, which corresponds to option (D).
- TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-03-AN1 markMCQQ.The frequency of sound heard by an observer moving towards a stationary source with certain speed is n1 and if the observer moves away from the same source with same speed, the frequency of sound heard by the observer is n2. If the speed of sound in air is 340ms−1 and n1:n2=71:65, then speed of observer is (A) 36 kmph (B) 27 kmph (C) 15 kmph (D) 54 kmph
›Reveal solutionSolution
The moving-observer Doppler ratio n2n1=v−vov+vo=6571 gives vo=15 m/s=54 kmph.
Concept
With a stationary source and an observer moving at speed vo, the frequency heard is raised when approaching and lowered when receding:
n1=nvv+vo,n2=nvv−vo
Their ratio depends only on vo and the speed of sound v:
n2n1=v−vov+vo=6571
Solving for the observer's speed
65(340+vo)=71(340−vo)
22100+65vo=24140−71vo
136vo=2040⇒vo=15 m/s
Converting to km/h: vo=15×3.6=54 kmph.
✓Final answerThe speed of the observer is 54 kmph — option (D).
- TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-03-FN1 markMCQQ.The frequency of sound heard by an observer moving towards a stationary source with certain speed is n1 and if the observer moves away from the same source with same speed, the frequency of sound heard by the observer is n2. If the speed of sound in air is 340ms−1 and n1:n2=71:65, then speed of observer is (A) 27 kmph (B) 15 kmph (C) 54 kmph (D) 36 kmph
›Reveal solutionSolution
The Doppler effect for a moving observer gives frequencies n1=n0vv+vo and n2=n0vv−vo. Their ratio 71/65 yields vo=15m/s=54km/h, so the correct option is (C).
The key idea is the Doppler effect for a moving observer and a stationary source. When the observer moves, the effective speed of sound relative to the observer changes, altering the perceived frequency. The ratio of frequencies when moving toward vs. away directly gives the observer’s speed without needing the source frequency.
-
Set up the Doppler formulas
For a stationary source emitting frequency n0 and speed of sound v=340m/s, the frequency heard by an observer moving with speed vo is:
- Toward the source: n1=n0vv+vo
- Away from the source: n2=n0vv−vo (The plus/minus is because the observer’s motion changes the relative speed of sound.)
-
Use the given ratio
We are told n1:n2=71:65, so:
n2n1=6571
Substitute the expressions:
n0vv−von0vv+vo=v−vov+vo=6571
- Solve for vo Cross-multiply:
65(v+vo)=71(v−vo)
Expand:
65v+65vo=71v−71vo
Bring terms together:
65vo+71vo=71v−65v
136vo=6v
vo=1366v=683×340
Simplify:
vo=683×340=681020=15m/s
- Convert to km/h Since 1m/s=3.6km/h:
vo=15×3.6=54km/h
Watch outA common mistake is to use the formula for a moving source instead of a moving observer. Here the source is stationary, so the frequency shift depends linearly on vo, not on v/(v±vs).
TipNotice that the source frequency n0 cancels out immediately — you never need its value. The ratio alone is enough.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C).
ANSWER: C
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- TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-04-AN1 markMCQQ.A steel pendulum clock manufactured at 32∘C and working at 47∘C is nearly (Coefficient of linear expansion of steel =12×10−6/∘C) (A) 7.8 s slow per day (B) 7.8 s fast per day (C) 15.6 s slow per day (D) 15.6 s fast per day
›Reveal solutionSolution
A pendulum clock runs slower at higher temperatures because the pendulum rod expands, increasing its length and thus its period. The fractional change in time is half the fractional change in length. For a 15°C rise, the clock loses about 7.8 seconds per day, so the correct option is (A).
The key concept here is thermal expansion of the pendulum rod. A pendulum’s period depends on its length: T=2πL/g. When the temperature rises, the rod expands, making L larger, so the period increases. A longer period means the clock ticks less frequently — it runs slow. The question asks how many seconds per day it loses.
We need the fractional change in period. For small changes, we can use calculus or a simple approximation.
-
Find the change in length.
The rod’s length changes by ΔL=L0αΔT, where α=12×10−6/∘C and ΔT=47−32=15∘C.
So L0ΔL=αΔT=12×10−6×15=180×10−6=1.8×10−4.
-
Relate period change to length change.
From T=2πL/g, take the natural log: lnT=ln(2π)+21lnL−21lng.
Differentiate: TdT=21LdL.
For small changes, TΔT≈21LΔL.
So TΔT=21×1.8×10−4=9.0×10−5.
-
Interpret the sign.
Since ΔL>0, ΔT>0 — the period increases. The clock ticks less often, so it loses time. It will be slow.
-
Calculate the time lost per day.
One day has 24×3600=86400 seconds.
The clock’s period is longer by a fraction 9.0×10−5, so in one real day, the clock completes fewer oscillations. The time it shows is less than real time by:
loss per day=86400×TΔT=86400×9.0×10−5
Compute: 86400×9=777600, then 777600×10−5=7.776 seconds.
Rounding gives 7.8 seconds slow per day.
Watch outA common mistake is to forget the factor of 1/2. Students sometimes think ΔT/T=ΔL/L, which would give 15.6 s — that’s option (C) or (D). But the period depends on the square root of length, so the fractional change in period is half the fractional change in length.
TipYou can also think: if length increases by 0.018%, the period increases by 0.009%. Multiply 86400 s by 0.00009 to get ~7.8 s. No calculator needed if you notice 864×9=7776 and shift decimal.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A).
ANSWER: A
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- TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-04-AN1 markMCQQ.A car moving towards a cliff emits sound of frequency ‘n’. If the difference in frequencies of the horn and its echo heard by the driver of the car is 10% of ‘n’, then the speed of the car is nearly (Speed of sound in air is 336ms−1) (A) 16ms−1 (B) 18ms−1 (C) 30ms−1 (D) 33ms−1
›Reveal solutionSolution
The problem involves the Doppler effect for sound: the driver hears both the direct horn frequency and the echo reflected from the cliff. The difference between these two frequencies is given as 10% of the original frequency. Solving the Doppler equations yields the car’s speed as approximately 16m/s, which corresponds to option (A).
Concept and Intuition
The driver emits a sound of frequency n while moving toward a stationary cliff. The cliff acts as a “listener” that receives a higher frequency (because the source is approaching). The cliff then reflects that sound, becoming a stationary source emitting that higher frequency. The driver, still moving toward the cliff, now hears this reflected sound at an even higher frequency. The echo frequency is thus shifted twice: once on the way to the cliff, and once on the way back. The problem states that the difference between the echo frequency and the original horn frequency is 10% of n, i.e., 0.1n. We set up the Doppler equations and solve for the car’s speed.
Step-by-step solution
- Frequency heard by the cliff (first Doppler shift) The car (source) moves toward the stationary cliff (observer) with speed vc. The frequency received at the cliff is:
n1=n⋅v−vcv
where v=336m/s is the speed of sound. The cliff is a stationary observer, so the formula uses the source moving toward observer.
- Frequency heard by the driver from the echo (second Doppler shift) The cliff now acts as a stationary source emitting frequency n1. The driver (observer) moves toward this source with speed vc. The frequency heard by the driver is:
n2=n1⋅vv+vc
Here the observer moves toward a stationary source, so we add the observer’s speed.
- Combine the two shifts Substitute n1 into the expression for n2:
n2=n⋅v−vcv⋅vv+vc=n⋅v−vcv+vc
So the echo frequency is simply n2=n⋅v−vcv+vc.
- Use the given frequency difference The difference between the echo frequency and the original horn frequency is:
n2−n=0.1n
Substitute n2:
n⋅v−vcv+vc−n=0.1n
Divide through by n (nonzero):
v−vcv+vc−1=0.1
- Solve for vc Simplify the left side:
v−vcv+vc−1=v−vcv+vc−(v−vc)=v−vc2vc
So we have:
v−vc2vc=0.1
Multiply both sides by v−vc:
2vc=0.1(v−vc)=0.1v−0.1vc
Bring terms together:
2vc+0.1vc=0.1v⇒2.1vc=0.1v
Thus:
vc=2.10.1v=211×336
Calculate:
vc=21336=16m/s
Watch outA common mistake is to forget that the echo undergoes two Doppler shifts — one when the sound reaches the cliff and another when it returns to the moving car. Using only a single shift gives a different (incorrect) answer.
TipNotice the neat result: the combined shift formula n2=n⋅v−vcv+vc is the same as if the car were approaching its own sound reflected from a stationary wall. This is a handy shortcut for such problems.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A).
ANSWER: A
- TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-04-FN1 markMCQQ.A car moving towards a cliff emits sound of frequency 'n'. If the difference in frequencies of the horn and its echo heard by the driver of the car is 10% of 'n', then the speed of the car is nearly (Speed of sound in air is 336ms−1) (A) 30ms−1 (B) 18ms−1 (C) 16ms−1 (D) 33ms−1
›Reveal solutionSolution
The driver hears both the direct horn frequency and the echo from the cliff (which is Doppler-shifted twice). The difference is 10% of the original frequency, leading to a car speed of about 16m/s.
The key here is to track the frequency shifts carefully. The horn emits frequency n from the moving car. The driver hears two sounds: the direct sound from the horn (which is Doppler-shifted because the car is moving toward the driver — but wait, the driver is in the car, so the source and observer move together). The echo comes from the sound reflecting off the cliff, which acts like a stationary observer then a stationary source.
Let’s break it down.
-
Direct sound heard by the driver
The car is the source of frequency n, and the driver is the observer — both move together at speed vc. Since source and observer have zero relative velocity, the direct sound is heard at the original frequency n. No Doppler shift here.
-
Echo heard by the driver
The sound travels to the cliff and back. First, the cliff (stationary) receives sound from the approaching car. The frequency heard by the cliff is:
n1=nv−vcv
where v=336m/s is the speed of sound and vc is the car’s speed. The cliff then acts as a stationary source re-emitting n1 toward the approaching car. The driver (observer) moves toward this source, so the frequency heard by the driver is:
n2=n1vv+vc=nv−vcv⋅vv+vc=nv−vcv+vc
- Difference in frequencies The driver hears the direct sound at n and the echo at n2. The difference is:
n2−n=n(v−vcv+vc−1)=n(v−vc2vc)
This difference is given as 10% of n, i.e., 0.1n. So:
v−vc2vc=0.1
- Solve for vc Multiply both sides by v−vc:
2vc=0.1(v−vc)
2vc=0.1v−0.1vc
2.1vc=0.1v
vc=2.10.1v=211×336=16m/s
Watch outA common mistake is to forget that the echo involves two Doppler shifts — one for the wave reaching the cliff and another for the reflected wave reaching the car. Treating it as a single shift gives a wrong answer.
TipNotice that the direct sound has no shift because source and observer move together. The echo formula n2=nv−vcv+vc is a handy shortcut for a moving source and moving observer approaching a stationary reflector.
✓Final answerThe speed of the car is nearly 16m/s, which corresponds to option (C).
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- TG EAPCET 2025Set ap-2025-04-30-FN1 markMCQQ.A body is allowed to fall freely under gravity from a height of 15 m from the ground. At a point in its path, if the kinetic energy of the body is 200% more than its potential energy, then the velocity of the body at that point is (Acceleration due to gravity =10 ms−2) (A) 6 ms−1 (B) 20 ms−1 (C) 10 ms−1 (D) 15 ms−1
›Reveal solutionSolution
When a body falls freely, its total mechanical energy (kinetic + potential) remains constant. By using the given condition that kinetic energy is 200% more than potential energy at a certain point, and applying conservation of energy from the initial height, we find the velocity at that point to be 15 ms−1.
When a body falls freely under gravity, assuming no air resistance, its total mechanical energy remains constant. This is a fundamental principle known as the conservation of mechanical energy. Mechanical energy is the sum of kinetic energy and potential energy.
- Potential Energy (PE): This is the energy stored in an object due to its position or state. For an object at a height h above a reference level (usually the ground), its gravitational potential energy is given by PE=mgh, where m is the mass and g is the acceleration due to gravity.
- Kinetic Energy (KE): This is the energy an object possesses due to its motion. For an object with mass m moving with velocity v, its kinetic energy is given by KE=21mv2.
As the body falls, its height decreases, so its potential energy decreases. Since total mechanical energy is conserved, this decrease in potential energy must be compensated by an increase in kinetic energy, meaning the body speeds up.
The problem states a specific condition: at a certain point, the kinetic energy is 200% more than its potential energy. This means if the potential energy is PE′, the kinetic energy KE′ is PE′+200% of PE′, which simplifies to KE′=PE′+2PE′=3PE′. We can use this relationship along with the conservation of mechanical energy to find the velocity.
Here's how to solve the problem step-by-step:
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Calculate the initial total mechanical energy:
The body starts falling freely from a height of 15 m. "Freely falling" implies its initial velocity is 0 ms−1.
- Initial height, H=15 m.
- Initial velocity, u=0 ms−1.
- Acceleration due to gravity, g=10 ms−2.
The initial potential energy (PEinitial) is:
PEinitial=mgH=m×10 ms−2×15 m=150m J
The initial kinetic energy ($KE_{initial}$) is:KEinitial=21mu2=21m(0)2=0 J
The total initial mechanical energy ($E_{total}$) is:Etotal=PEinitial+KEinitial=150m+0=150m J
- Express energies at the point in question:
Let the body be at a height h′ from the ground at the point where the given condition applies, and let its velocity at this point be v′.
- Potential energy at this point (PE′) is:
PE′=mgh′=m×10 ms−2×h′=10mh′ J
* Kinetic energy at this point ($KE'$) is:KE′=21mv′2 J
- Apply the given condition: The problem states that the kinetic energy is 200% more than its potential energy.
KE′=PE′+(200% of PE′)
KE′=PE′+2PE′
KE′=3PE′
Substitute the expressions for $KE'$ and $PE'$:21mv′2=3(10mh′)
Divide both sides by $m$:21v′2=30h′
This gives us a relationship between $v'^2$ and $h'$:v′2=60h′(Equation 1)
- Apply the principle of conservation of mechanical energy: The total mechanical energy at the initial point must be equal to the total mechanical energy at the point in question.
Etotal=PE′+KE′
150m=10mh′+21mv′2
Divide both sides by $m$:150=10h′+21v′2(Equation 2)
- Solve for the velocity (v′): We have two equations (Equation 1 and Equation 2) and two unknowns (h′ and v′). We can substitute h′ from Equation 1 into Equation 2. From Equation 1, h′=60v′2. Substitute this into Equation 2:
150=10(60v′2)+21v′2
150=6v′2+2v′2
To combine the terms on the right, find a common denominator (which is 6):150=6v′2+63v′2
150=6v′2+3v′2
150=64v′2
150=32v′2
Now, solve for $v'^2$:2v′2=150×3
2v′2=450
v′2=2450
v′2=225
Take the square root to find $v'$:v′=225
v′=15 ms−1
Watch outBe careful with the phrasing "200% more than". It means PE+200% of PE, not just 200% of PE. If it were "kinetic energy is 200% of its potential energy", then KE=2PE. But "200% more than" means KE=PE+2PE=3PE.
✓Final answerThe velocity of the body at that point is 15 ms−1.
- TG EAPCET 2025Set ap-2025-04-30-FN1 markMCQQ.When a long hollow steel pipe is struck with a hammer at one end, two sounds are heard at the other end. If the time interval between the two sounds heard is 0.53 s, then the length of the pipe is (Speed of sound in steel is 5100 ms−1 and speed of sound in air is 330 ms−1) (A) 153 m (B) 174 m (C) 187 m (D) 270 m
›Reveal solutionSolution
The two sounds travel through steel and air at different speeds; the time difference gives the pipe length. The length is 187 m.
The key idea is that when you strike one end of a long steel pipe, the sound reaches the other end through two different paths: one through the steel itself (the pipe material) and one through the air inside the pipe. Since sound travels much faster in steel than in air, the sound through steel arrives first, and the sound through air arrives later. The time interval you hear is the difference between these two travel times.
This is a classic problem of two media with different speeds. The distance travelled is the same — the length of the pipe — so we can write the time for each path as distance divided by speed. The difference between these times is given, and we solve for the length.
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Let the length of the pipe be L metres.
Time taken by sound through steel: ts=vsL, where vs=5100 m/s.
Time taken by sound through air: ta=vaL, where va=330 m/s.
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The sound through air arrives later, so the time interval is:
ta−ts=0.53 s
- Substitute the expressions:
330L−5100L=0.53
- Take L common:
L(3301−51001)=0.53
- Compute the bracket. Find a common denominator (LCM of 330 and 5100). 330=33×10, 5100=51×100. It's easier to compute directly:
3301=330×51005100and51001=330×5100330
So:
3301−51001=330×51005100−330=330×51004770
- Simplify the fraction. Divide numerator and denominator by 30:
330×5100÷304770÷30=330×170159
(Check: 330×5100÷30=330×170).
Now simplify further: 330×170=56100. So:
3301−51001=56100159
- Reduce 56100159. Both are divisible by 3: 159÷3=53, 56100÷3=18700. So:
3301−51001=1870053
TipA faster way: compute the bracket as 330×51005100−330=1,683,0004770. Simplify by dividing numerator and denominator by 30: 56,100159, then by 3: 18,70053. Same result.
- Now the equation becomes:
L×1870053=0.53
- Solve for L:
L=0.53×5318700
- Notice 0.53=10053. So:
L=10053×5318700=10018700=187
Thus the length of the pipe is 187 metres.
Watch outA common mistake is to subtract the speeds directly or to use the wrong order in the time difference. Always remember: the faster medium gives the shorter time, so the slower medium's time minus the faster medium's time gives a positive interval.
✓Final answerThe length of the pipe is 187 m, which corresponds to option (C).
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