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NCERT Exemplar · Q64

Q.State whether the following statement is True or False: If AA and BB are mutually exclusive events, then they will be independent also.

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Mutually exclusive events cannot be independent (unless one has zero probability). The statement is False.

Why this question trips students up

The confusion here comes from mixing up two different kinds of "relationship" between events. Mutually exclusive events cannot happen together — they share no outcomes. Independent events can happen together, and the occurrence of one tells you nothing about the other. These are fundamentally opposite ideas.

Let's make this concrete. Suppose you roll a fair die. Let AA be "roll a 1" and BB be "roll a 2". These are mutually exclusive — you can't get both on a single roll. But are they independent? If you know AA happened, does that change the probability of BB? Absolutely — it drops it to zero. So they are dependent.

The only exception is when one event has probability zero — then it's both mutually exclusive and independent, but that's a degenerate case, not the general rule.

Step-by-step reasoning

1. Recall the definitions precisely.

Two events AA and BB are:

  • Mutually exclusive if A∩B=∅A \cap B = \emptyset, so P(A∩B)=0P(A \cap B) = 0.
  • Independent if P(A∩B)=P(A)⋅P(B)P(A \cap B) = P(A) \cdot P(B).

P(A∩B)=P(A)⋅P(B)(independence)P(A \cap B) = P(A) \cdot P(B) \quad \text{(independence)}

P(A∩B)=0(mutual exclusivity)P(A \cap B) = 0 \quad \text{(mutual exclusivity)}

2. Assume both conditions hold.

If AA and BB are both mutually exclusive and independent, then we must have:

0=P(A)⋅P(B)0 = P(A) \cdot P(B)

3. Interpret the equation.

The product P(A)⋅P(B)=0P(A) \cdot P(B) = 0 means at least one of P(A)P(A) or P(B)P(B) is zero. So the only way mutual exclusivity and independence can coexist is if one of the events has zero probability.

4. Apply to the general case. …

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