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NCERT Exemplar · Q1

Q.An electron and a proton are moving under the influence of mutual forces. In calculating the change in the kinetic energy of the system during motion, one ignores the magnetic force of one on another. This is because,

(a) the two magnetic forces are equal and opposite, so they produce no net effect.
(b) the magnetic forces do no work on each particle.
(c) the magnetic forces do equal and opposite (but non-zero) work on each particle.
(d) the magenetic forces are necessarily negligible.
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✓ Free question

Magnetic forces are always perpendicular to velocity, so they do zero work on any charged particle. The change in kinetic energy depends only on work done, making the magnetic interaction irrelevant to energy calculations. The answer is (B).

Why magnetic forces don't change kinetic energy

The work-energy theorem tells us that the change in kinetic energy of a particle equals the net work done on it:

ΔKE=Wnet=∫F⃗⋅ds⃗\Delta KE = W_{\text{net}} = \int \vec{F} \cdot d\vec{s}

Work is the dot product of force and displacement. When a force acts perpendicular to motion, that dot product vanishes—the force does nothing to speed up or slow down the particle.

The magnetic force on a charged particle moving with velocity v⃗\vec{v} in a magnetic field B⃗\vec{B} is given by the Lorentz force:

F⃗mag=q(v⃗×B⃗)\vec{F}_{\text{mag}} = q(\vec{v} \times \vec{B})

The cross product v⃗×B⃗\vec{v} \times \vec{B} produces a vector perpendicular to both v⃗\vec{v} and B⃗\vec{B}. This means the magnetic force is always perpendicular to the particle's instantaneous velocity.

Step-by-step reasoning

  1. Calculate the work done by the magnetic force on one particle. The instantaneous power delivered by any force is P=F⃗⋅v⃗P = \vec{F} \cdot \vec{v}. For the magnetic force:

Pmag=F⃗mag⋅v⃗=q(v⃗×B⃗)⋅v⃗P_{\text{mag}} = \vec{F}_{\text{mag}} \cdot \vec{v} = q(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}) \cdot \vec{v}

The scalar triple product (v⃗×B⃗)⋅v⃗=0(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}) \cdot \vec{v} = 0 because v⃗×B⃗\vec{v} \times \vec{B} is perpendicular to v⃗\vec{v}. Therefore Pmag=0P_{\text{mag}} = 0 at every instant.

  1. Integrate over the path. Since the instantaneous power is zero everywhere along the trajectory, the total work done is:

Wmag=∫Pmag dt=0W_{\text{mag}} = \int P_{\text{mag}} \, dt = 0

  1. Apply to both particles.

    The proton creates a magnetic field that exerts a force on the electron, and vice versa. But each magnetic force is perpendicular to the velocity of the particle it acts upon. Both particles experience zero work from the magnetic interaction.

  2. Kinetic energy of the system.

    Since neither particle gains or loses kinetic energy from the magnetic forces, these forces do not contribute to ΔKEsystem\Delta KE_{\text{system}}. Only the electric (Coulomb) forces, which can do work, change the kinetic energy.

Watch out

Option (A) might seem tempting because Newton's third law guarantees the magnetic forces are equal and opposite. But equal-and-opposite forces can still do net work on a system if the particles move different distances or in different directions (think of a compressed spring pushing two blocks apart). The real reason is that each force individually does zero work.

Tip

Magnetic forces can change the direction of motion (they provide centripetal acceleration in circular paths) but never the speed. They deflect without energizing.

✓Final answer

The correct option is (B): the magnetic forces do no work on each particle.

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