Q.If either vector or then But the converse need not be true. Justify your answer with an example.
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Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →The dot product being zero does not mean one of the vectors must be the zero vector — two non-zero perpendicular vectors also give a zero dot product. The statement is false as a converse, and the classic counterexample is and .
The core idea here is about the meaning of the dot product. The dot product measures how much two vectors point in the same direction. If either vector is zero, there's nothing to measure — the product is automatically zero. That part is true.
But the converse says: "If the dot product is zero, then at least one vector must be zero." That is not true. Why? Because the dot product can also be zero when two non-zero vectors are perpendicular (orthogonal). In that case, they have zero "overlap" in direction, even though both are perfectly fine non-zero vectors.
Let's walk through this carefully.
- Recall the geometric definition of the dot product. For any two vectors and ,
where is the angle between them.
If or , then or , so the product is . That's the given "if" part — correct.
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Now examine the converse.
The converse claims: or .
But from the formula, can also happen when , i.e., when (or , etc.). That means the vectors are perpendicular, and neither needs to be zero.
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Construct a concrete counterexample.
Take any two non-zero perpendicular vectors in the plane. The simplest:
Compute the dot product:
Yet clearly and . …
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