Q.Which of the following complexes formed by Cu2+ ions is most stable?
Concept understanding — Magnetic Moment Calculation
From a Paperclip to a Magnet: The Intuition
You already know that a magnet can pick up iron nails. But what is actually happening inside that nail when it gets near the magnet? And why does a plastic comb, rubbed on hair, pick up tiny bits of paper — but never iron filings?
The answer lies in magnetization — the process by which a material becomes magnetic.
Think of a piece of iron as a chaotic crowd of tiny compass needles. Each needle is an atomic magnetic moment (a tiny magnet, arising from the spin of electrons). In unmagnetized iron, these needles point in random directions. Their magnetic effects cancel out, so the iron as a whole shows no net magnetism.
Now bring a strong magnet close. Its magnetic field acts like a command: "Line up!" The tiny compass needles inside the iron start rotating, aligning themselves with the external field. The more they align, the stronger the iron's own magnetic field becomes. This alignment is magnetization.
Magnetization is not the same as inducing a current. It is a purely magnetic reorientation of atomic dipoles inside a material.
The Precise Definition
Magnetization (M) is the net magnetic dipole moment per unit volume of a material. It tells you how strongly a material is magnetized — how many tiny atomic magnets are aligned, and in which direction.
If a material has N atoms per unit volume, each with an average magnetic moment μavg, then:
M=Nμavg
The SI unit of M is amperes per metre (A/m). Why? Because a magnetic dipole moment has units of A·m², and dividing by volume (m³) gives A/m.
M=volumetotal magnetic dipole moment
How Magnetization Connects to the Magnetic Field
When a material gets magnetized, it produces its own magnetic field. The total magnetic field B inside the material is the sum of:
- The external applied field H (caused by free currents, like the current in a solenoid)
- The material's response — the magnetization M
The fundamental relation is:
B=μ0(H+M)
where μ0=4π×10−7T⋅m/A is the permeability of free space.
Do not confuse H (magnetic field intensity, or "magnetizing field") with B (magnetic flux density). H is what you apply; M is what the material does; B is the total field you measure.
The Three Kinds of Magnetic Materials
Not all materials respond the same way to an external field. The magnetization M is proportional to H for most materials (at least for small fields):
M=χmH
where χm is the magnetic susceptibility — a dimensionless number that tells you how easily a material magnetizes.
| Material Type | χm | Behaviour | Example |
|---|---|---|---|
| Diamagnetic | Small and negative (≈−10−5) | Weakly repelled by a magnet; M opposes H | Water, copper, bismuth |
| Paramagnetic | Small and positive (≈10−5 to 10−3) | Weakly attracted; M aligns with H | Aluminium, oxygen gas |
| Ferromagnetic | Large and positive (≫1) | Strongly attracted; M can be huge and persists even after H is removed | Iron, nickel, cobalt |
Ferromagnetic materials have spontaneous magnetization — their atomic moments align even without an external field, forming magnetic domains. Magnetization in these materials is not linear; it saturates and shows hysteresis.
A Simple Example
Take a long iron rod placed inside a solenoid carrying current I. The solenoid produces a uniform field H inside. The iron rod becomes magnetized: its atomic moments align, producing M in the same direction as H.
If χm for iron is about 5000, then M=5000H. The total field inside the rod becomes:
B=μ0(H+5000H)=μ0(5001)H
That is why an iron core can amplify the magnetic field of a solenoid by thousands of times.
The Bottom Line
Magnetization is the measure of how much a material becomes magnetic when placed in an external field. It arises from the alignment of atomic magnetic dipoles. For linear materials, M=χmH. For ferromagnets, the response is nonlinear, strong, and can be permanent — that is how you get a bar magnet from a piece of iron.
Magnetic moment calculation using the spin-only formula is a numerically important topic in the NCERT/CBSE Class 12 Chemistry chapters on d-Block Elements and Coordination Compounds, and ‘spin only formula magnetic moment’ is a frequently searched important-question topic for board exams, JEE Main and NEET. Calculating the number of unpaired electrons correctly is a skill tested repeatedly in competitive-exam chemistry numericals.
Why this formula?
Magnetic Moment Calculation: Why the Formula Holds
Let's build this from first principles — understanding the why before the formula.
1. What is Magnetic Moment?
A magnetic moment (μ) is a measure of the strength and orientation of a magnet or current loop. It tells us how strongly an object will interact with an external magnetic field.
The core idea: any moving charge creates a magnetic field. A loop of current is like a tiny bar magnet — its magnetic moment quantifies this.
2. The Fundamental Formula: Current Loop
The Setup
Consider a planar loop of wire carrying a steady current I, enclosing an area A.
Why μ=IA?
Step 1: Force on a moving charge
A charge q moving with velocity v in a magnetic field B experiences:
F=q(v×B)
Step 2: Torque on a current loop
For a rectangular loop of sides a and b (A=ab), placed in a uniform B:
- Current I means charge flows. On side of length a, the force magnitude is F=IaB (since I=tq and v=ta).
- These forces on opposite sides form a couple (equal, opposite, not collinear).
- Torque τ=force×perpendicular distance=(IaB)×(bsinθ)
Step 3: Recognize the pattern
τ=I(ab)Bsinθ=IABsinθ
This looks exactly like:
τ=μBsinθ
Comparing, we identify:
μ=IA
Why this works: The torque on a current loop is proportional to the current and the area — this product naturally defines the magnetic moment.
3. For a Single Moving Charge (Orbital Magnetic Moment)
The Setup
An electron of charge −e moves in a circular orbit of radius r with speed v.
Why μ=2evr?
Step 1: Treat orbit as a current loop
- Time for one revolution: T=v2πr
- Current (charge per unit time): I=Te=2πrev
Step 2: Apply μ=IA
- Area of orbit: A=πr2
- So: μ=(2πrev)(πr2)=2evr
Step 3: Express in terms of angular momentum
- Orbital angular momentum: L=mvr
- Therefore: μ=2meL
Why this matters: The magnetic moment is directly proportional to angular momentum. The factor 2me is called the gyromagnetic ratio — it links mechanics to magnetism.
4. For a Solenoid (Many Turns)
The Setup
A solenoid of N turns, length l, carrying current I, cross-sectional area A.
Why μ=NIA?
Each turn contributes μturn=IA. For N identical turns in series:
μtotal=N⋅(IA)=NIA
If the solenoid has n=N/l turns per unit length:
μ=(nl)IA
Key insight: The magnetic moment adds linearly for multiple turns because each turn's torque contribution adds.
5. Summary Table of Key Results
| System | Formula | Why |
|---|---|---|
| Single current loop | μ=IA | Torque on loop ∝IA |
| Orbiting electron | μ=2meL | Current from orbital motion |
| Solenoid | μ=NIA | Sum of individual loop moments |
| General definition | μ=21∫r×JdV | For continuous current distributions |
6. Exam-Relevant Takeaway
Always remember:
- Magnetic moment always involves current × area (or equivalent)
- For particles, it's charge-to-mass ratio × angular momentum
- Direction: given by right-hand rule (curl fingers along current, thumb points along μ)
The formula isn't arbitrary — it emerges naturally from the torque a current loop experiences in a magnetic field.
The key idea is that the stability constant K (or its logarithm) directly measures how stable a complex is — a higher logK means the equilibrium lies further to the right, so the complex is more stable.
Step 1: For each complex, the given logK value is the logarithm of the formation (stability) constant.
Step 2: Compare the numerical values:
- (i) logK=11.6
- (ii) logK=27.3
- (iii) logK=15.4
- (iv) logK=8.9
Step 3: The largest logK is 27.3, corresponding to [Cu(CN)4]2−.
The most stable complex is [Cu(CN)4]2− (option ii), with logK=27.3.
The stability of a complex is directly measured by its formation constant K; the larger the logK, the more stable the complex. Here, the complex with logK=27.3 is the most stable.
The question asks which complex is most stable. In coordination chemistry, the stability of a complex is quantified by its formation constant (also called stability constant) K. The reaction given is the formation of the complex from the metal ion and ligands. A larger K means the equilibrium lies further to the right — the complex is more stable and less likely to dissociate.
The values are given as logK, so we compare these directly. No conversion is needed: the highest logK corresponds to the highest K, hence the most stable complex.
Let’s go through each option:
-
Option (i): Cu2++4NH3⇌[Cu(NH3)4]2+, logK=11.6
This is a moderately stable complex. Ammonia is a good ligand, but not exceptionally strong for copper(II).
-
Option (ii): Cu2++4CN−⇌[Cu(CN)4]2−, logK=27.3
Cyanide ion is a very strong ligand (high field strength, forms strong σ and π bonds). The logK is dramatically higher than the others — over 10 orders of magnitude larger in K than the next closest.
-
Option (iii): Cu2++2en⇌[Cu(en)2]2+, logK=15.4
Ethylenediamine (en) is a bidentate ligand, which gives a chelate effect — this usually increases stability compared to monodentate ligands like NH3. Indeed, logK=15.4 is higher than for NH3 (11.6), but still far below CN−.
-
Option (iv): Cu2++4H2O⇌[Cu(H2O)4]2+, logK=8.9
Water is a weak ligand. This is the least stable complex here.
A common mistake is to think that chelating ligands (like en) always form the most stable complexes. While the chelate effect does enhance stability, the intrinsic ligand strength matters more. Here, CN− is such a powerful ligand that it overcomes the chelate advantage.
You don’t need to calculate K from logK — just compare the logK values directly. The largest logK means the largest K, hence the most stable complex.
The most stable complex is formed with cyanide ions, option (ii).
Method: Stability Constant Comparison
The stability of a complex is directly measured by its formation constant (Kf).
A higher Kf means the complex is more stable — it forms more readily and dissociates less.
Steps
- Recall the relationship The given values are logK (base 10). The actual formation constant is:
Kf=10logK
-
Compare logK values directly
Since Kf increases with logK, the complex with the largest logK is the most stable.
-
Identify the largest logK
- (i) logK=11.6
- (ii) logK=27.3
- (iii) logK=15.4
- (iv) logK=8.9
logK=27.3 is the highest.
-
Conclude
The complex with CN− is the most stable.
Final Answer
Option (ii): [Cu(CN)4]2− is the most stable complex.
Common Mistakes & How to Avoid Them
Mistake 1: Confusing logK with K
The error: Students compare logK values directly and think the largest logK means the least stable complex.
Why it's wrong:
A higher logK means a larger equilibrium constant K, which indicates greater stability of the complex.
How to avoid:
Remember:
- logK↑⟹K↑⟹ more stable complex
- For this question: 27.3>15.4>11.6>8.9, so option (ii) is most stable.
Mistake 2: Forgetting that logK is directly proportional to stability
The error: Some students think a lower logK means the reaction "goes more to completion" — this is backwards.
Why it's wrong:
The equilibrium constant K for complex formation is:
K=[Cu2+][ligand]n[complex]
A larger K means the equilibrium lies far to the right — more complex formed, hence more stable.
How to avoid:
Write the expression for K and reason:
- Big K → products favoured → stable complex
- Small K → reactants favoured → unstable complex
Mistake 3: Ignoring the denticity of ligands
The error: Students compare logK values without considering that en (ethylenediamine) is bidentate, while NH3, CN−, and H2O are monodentate.
Why it matters:
A bidentate ligand like en forms a chelate ring, which gives extra stability (chelate effect). Even though logK for en (15.4) is less than for CN− (27.3), the chelate effect is already included in the given logK value.
How to avoid:
- The logK values already account for denticity — compare them directly.
- Do not try to "adjust" the values manually.
Mistake 4: Overthinking magnetic moment or geometry
The error: Students try to use magnetic moment or crystal field theory to decide stability.
Why it's wrong:
The question gives experimental logK values — these are the direct measure of stability. Magnetic moment tells you about unpaired electrons, not thermodynamic stability.
How to avoid:
- When logK (or K) is given, use it directly.
- Save magnetic moment reasoning for questions about geometry, spin state, or colour.
Mistake 5: Misreading the question as "least stable"
The error: Students accidentally pick the smallest logK (option iv) because they read "most stable" as "least stable".
How to avoid:
- Circle the word "most" or "least" in the question.
- Double-check: largest logK = most stable.
Final Answer
Most stable complex: Option (ii) [Cu(CN)4]2− with logK=27.3
Quick check:
- (ii) logK=27.3 → largest → most stable ✓
- (iv) logK=8.9 → smallest → least stable
Showing the 12 most recent of 34 on this concept.
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-12-FN1 markMCQQ.Consider the following Ti,V,Cr,Mn,Fe The spin only magnetic moment (in BM) of the metal with lowest melting point in its +3 oxidation state is (A) 15 (B) 24 (C) 35 (D) 3
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests recognising Mn's anomalous melting point and computing a spin-only magnetic moment; the answer is 24 BM.
Concept and Intuition
Across the 3d series, melting points generally rise then fall with the number of unpaired d-electrons available for metallic bonding, but Mn is a famous outlier: its complex crystal structure (with several inequivalent Mn sites) leads to unusually weak metallic bonding, so Mn has by far the LOWEST melting point among Ti–Fe. Once the correct metal is identified, the spin-only formula μ=n(n+2) BM gives the magnetic moment from the number of unpaired electrons in the specified oxidation state.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Compare melting points of Ti, V, Cr, Mn, Fe: Ti≈1668°C, V≈1910°C, Cr≈1907°C, Mn≈1246°C (anomalously low), Fe≈1538°C. Mn has the lowest.
- Mn (Z=25): ground state [Ar]3d54s2.
- Mn3+: remove 2 electrons from 4s and 1 from 3d ⇒ configuration 3d4.
- By Hund's rule, 3d4 places 4 electrons in 5 d-orbitals all unpaired (free ion, no ligand field specified): n=4.
- Spin-only moment: μ=n(n+2)=4×6=24 BM.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming Fe has the lowest melting point since it 'feels' like the least reactive/most common metal — the anomaly specifically belongs to Mn.
- Miscounting Mn3+ as 3d5 (forgetting one 3d electron, not just the two 4s electrons, must be removed to reach the 3+ state) — this is because Mn loses 4s electrons first, then a 3d electron for the third ionisation.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — 24.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-13-FN1 markMCQQ.In which of the following, elements are correctly arranged in the increasing order of unpaired electrons? (A) Fe < Co < Ni < Mn (B) Ni < Co < Mn < Fe (C) Mn < Fe < Co < Ni (D) Ni < Co < Fe < Mn
›Reveal solutionSolution
Counting unpaired 3d electrons in Mn, Fe, Co, Ni (Hund's rule) gives Mn=5, Fe=4, Co=3, Ni=2, so the increasing order is Ni < Co < Fe < Mn.
Concept and Intuition
For first-row transition metals, the 4s orbital fills before 3d but electrons in the (n−1)d subshell obey Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity — electrons singly occupy all five d orbitals before any pairing begins. As we move across the row adding one more d-electron at a time past the half-filled d5 configuration, pairing begins and the number of unpaired electrons decreases even though the electron count increases, until d10 (all paired).
Step-by-Step Solution
- Write ground-state configurations (outer shells): Mn = [Ar]3d54s2; Fe = [Ar]3d64s2; Co = [Ar]3d74s2; Ni = [Ar]3d84s2.
- Apply Hund's rule to count unpaired d-electrons:
- Mn, 3d5: all five orbitals singly occupied → 5 unpaired.
- Fe, 3d6: one orbital now doubly occupied, four still singly occupied → 4 unpaired.
- Co, 3d7: two orbitals doubly occupied, three singly occupied → 3 unpaired.
- Ni, 3d8: three orbitals doubly occupied, two singly occupied → 2 unpaired.
- Arrange in increasing order of unpaired-electron count: Ni (2) < Co (3) < Fe (4) < Mn (5).
- This matches option (D) exactly.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming unpaired electrons increase monotonically with atomic number across the row — past the half-filled d5 point, adding electrons causes pairing, so the count actually falls.
- Misremembering Mn's configuration as 3d7 instead of the correct half-filled, maximally-unpaired 3d5.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — Ni < Co < Fe < Mn.
ANSWER: D
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-15-AN1 markMCQQ.A transition metal ion X3+ has a magnetic moment of 15 BM. The atomic number of the metal X is (A) 24 (B) 25 (C) 26 (D) 27
›Reveal solutionSolution
15 BM means 3 unpaired electrons; the only ion among the choices that is unambiguously d3 is Cr3+, atomic number 24.
Concept and Intuition
The spin-only magnetic moment formula μ=n(n+2) BM connects the number of unpaired electrons n to the measured moment. Working backwards from a given moment tells you n directly, and then you match n to the d-electron count of the ion.
Step-by-Step Solution
- μ=n(n+2)=15⇒n(n+2)=15⇒n2+2n−15=0⇒(n+5)(n−3)=0⇒n=3.
- So X3+ has 3 unpaired electrons — i.e. it is a d3 ion (three electrons singly occupying the three t2g orbitals with no possibility of pairing, regardless of ligand field).
- Check each candidate atomic number as the neutral atom, then remove 3 electrons for the 3+ ion:
- Z=24, Cr: [Ar]3d54s1⇒Cr3+=[Ar]3d3. Exactly 3 unpaired electrons. ✓
- Z=25, Mn: [Ar]3d54s2⇒Mn3+=[Ar]3d4, which has 4 unpaired electrons (high spin). ✗
- Z=26, Fe: [Ar]3d64s2⇒Fe3+=[Ar]3d5, 5 unpaired electrons. ✗
- Z=27, Co: [Ar]3d74s2⇒Co3+=[Ar]3d6, 4 unpaired (high spin) or 0 (low spin), never 3. ✗
- Only Cr (Z = 24) matches n=3 unambiguously.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting that transition metal cations lose the 4s electrons before any 3d electrons.
- Using the total (not spin-only) formula, or misreading 15 as corresponding to n=4.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — 24.
ANSWER: A
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-15-AN1 markMCQQ.How many of the following complex ions contain 4 unpaired electrons? [Cr(H2O)6]2+, [Mn(H2O)6]2+, [Fe(H2O)6]2+, [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Cu(H2O)6]2+, [CoF6]3−, [Cr(CN)6]4−, [MnCl4]2− The correct answer is (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5
›Reveal solutionSolution
Working out the d-electron count and spin state for each of the eight complex ions, exactly four of them ([Cr(H2O)6]2+, [Fe(H2O)6]2+, [Co(H2O)6]3+, [CoF6]3−) have 4 unpaired electrons.
Concept and Intuition
The number of unpaired d-electrons in a complex depends on (a) the metal's oxidation state and dn configuration, and (b) whether the ligand field is strong enough to force pairing (low spin) or not (high spin). H2O, F− and Cl− are weak-to-intermediate field ligands, so octahedral complexes with them are high spin; CN− is a strong field ligand, forcing low spin; tetrahedral complexes have such a small crystal field splitting that they are essentially always high spin regardless of the ligand.
Step-by-Step Solution
Go through each ion (metal ion configuration, spin state, unpaired count):
- [Cr(H2O)6]2+: Cr2+=d4, weak field (HS) ⇒t2g3eg1⇒ 4 unpaired.
- [Mn(H2O)6]2+: Mn2+=d5, HS ⇒t2g3eg2⇒ 5 unpaired.
- [Fe(H2O)6]2+: Fe2+=d6, HS ⇒t2g4eg2⇒ 4 unpaired (one paired orbital, four singly occupied).
- [Co(H2O)6]3+: Co3+=d6; H2O is too weak a field to pair Co3+ electrons (only very strong ligands like NH3/CN− do that), so it is HS like Fe above ⇒ 4 unpaired.
- [Cu(H2O)6]2+: Cu2+=d9⇒ 1 unpaired.
- [CoF6]3−: Co3+=d6, F− weak field ⇒ HS, same as (4) ⇒ 4 unpaired (the classic textbook example of a paramagnetic Co(III) complex).
- [Cr(CN)6]4−: Cr2+=d4, CN− strong field ⇒ LS ⇒t2g4⇒ 2 unpaired.
- [MnCl4]2−: tetrahedral, Mn2+=d5; tetrahedral geometry is always high spin ⇒ 5 unpaired.
Counting entries with exactly 4 unpaired electrons: (1), (3), (4), (6) — that's 4 complex ions.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming H2O always gives high spin without checking whether the metal even has a choice (e.g. d9 has only one possible arrangement).
- Treating tetrahedral complexes with a strong-field ligand as low spin — geometry, not just ligand identity, matters.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — 4.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2026Set ap-2026-05-19-FN1 markMCQQ.Which of the following pairs of ions are not paramagnetic in nature? (Atomic Number: La=57, Ce=58, Eu=63, Gd=64, Tb=65, Yb=70, Lu=71) I. La3+,Ce4+ II. Eu2+,Ce3+ III. Lu3+,Yb2+ IV. Tb4+,Gd3+ The correct answer is (A) I & III (B) II & III (C) III & IV (D) I & IV
›Reveal solutionSolution
Determine the 4f-electron count of each lanthanide ion; a pair is diamagnetic (not paramagnetic) only if both ions have a fully empty (4f⁰) or fully filled (4f¹⁴) f-subshell.
Concept and Intuition
Lanthanide ions are paramagnetic whenever they have unpaired 4f electrons. The two 'magic' configurations with zero unpaired electrons are 4f⁰ (empty) and 4f¹⁴ (completely filled) — both diamagnetic. Any partially filled 4f subshell (4f¹ through 4f¹³, excluding the special stable half/fully filled cases which still can have unpaired electrons unless exactly f0/f14) gives unpaired electrons and hence paramagnetism.
Step-by-Step Solution
- La (Z=57): [Xe]5d16s2; La3+ removes all 3 outer electrons → [Xe]4f0 — diamagnetic.
- Ce (Z=58): [Xe]4f15d16s2; Ce4+ removes all 4 → [Xe]4f0 — diamagnetic. So pair I (La3+,Ce4+) is NOT paramagnetic.
- Ce3+ retains one f-electron: 4f1 — paramagnetic. Eu (Z=63): [Xe]4f76s2; Eu2+ → 4f7 — paramagnetic. So pair II IS paramagnetic.
- Yb (Z=70): [Xe]4f146s2; Yb2+ → 4f14 — diamagnetic. Lu (Z=71): [Xe]4f145d16s2; Lu3+ → 4f14 — diamagnetic. So pair III is NOT paramagnetic.
- Gd (Z=64): [Xe]4f75d16s2; Gd3+ → 4f7 — paramagnetic. Tb (Z=65): [Xe]4f96s2; Tb4+ removes 4 electrons → 4f7 — paramagnetic. So pair IV IS paramagnetic.
- Pairs that are NOT paramagnetic: I and III.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting that Ce4+ (not Ce3+) is 4f⁰, or miscounting how many electrons are removed to reach the ion's charge.
- Assuming half-filled f⁷ automatically means 'stable and non-magnetic' — a half-filled shell is stable but still has 7 unpaired electrons and is strongly paramagnetic.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — I & III.
ANSWER: A
- AP EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-18-AN1 markMCQQ.In which of the following given sets, complexes are correctly arranged in the increasing order of their spin only magnetic moment values? I. [Fe(CN)6]4−<[Fe(CN)6]3−<[Fe(H2O)6]3+ II. [Co(NH3)6]3+<[Ni(H2O)6]2+<[Cr(H2O)6]3+ III. [V(H2O)6]3+<[Cr(CN)6]3−<[Fe(H2O)6]2+ The correct answer is (A) I, II only (B) I, II, III (C) II, III only (D) I, III only
›Reveal solutionSolution
Working out the d-electron count, spin state (from field strength of the ligand) and hence unpaired-electron count for each complex confirms all three given orderings of spin-only magnetic moment are correct.
Concept and Intuition
Spin-only magnetic moment is μ=n(n+2) BM, where n = number of unpaired electrons. The number of unpaired electrons depends on the metal's oxidation state (which fixes the dn configuration) and whether the ligand is weak-field (high spin, e.g. H2O usually) or strong-field (low spin, e.g. CN−, NH3 for many metals) — strong field ligands pair electrons into t2g before populating eg.
Step-by-Step Solution
Set I:
- [Fe(CN)6]4−: Fe2+, d6, CN− strong field ⇒ low spin, t2g6eg0, 0 unpaired, μ=0.
- [Fe(CN)6]3−: Fe3+, d5, CN− strong field ⇒ low spin, t2g5, 1 unpaired, μ=3=1.73.
- [Fe(H2O)6]3+: Fe3+, d5, H2O weak field ⇒ high spin, t2g3eg2, 5 unpaired, μ=35=5.92.
- Order 0<1.73<5.92 matches I. True.
Set II:
- [Co(NH3)6]3+: Co3+, d6, NH3 strong field for Co3+ ⇒ low spin, 0 unpaired, μ=0.
- [Ni(H2O)6]2+: Ni2+, d8, always t2g6eg2 regardless of field, 2 unpaired, μ=8=2.83.
- [Cr(H2O)6]3+: Cr3+, d3, t2g3, 3 unpaired, μ=15=3.87.
- Order 0<2.83<3.87 matches II. True.
Set III:
- [V(H2O)6]3+: V3+, d2, t2g2, 2 unpaired, μ=8=2.83.
- [Cr(CN)6]3−: Cr3+, d3, only 3 electrons so all unpaired in t2g regardless of field strength, 3 unpaired, μ=15=3.87.
- [Fe(H2O)6]2+: Fe2+, d6, H2O weak field ⇒ high spin, t2g4eg2, 4 unpaired, μ=24=4.90.
- Order 2.83<3.87<4.90 matches III. True.
All three orderings I, II, III hold.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming CN− always forces low spin for every metal ion (it is strong-field but low-spin d3/d8 configurations are the same as high spin since there's no choice in filling).
- Forgetting that d3 and d8 configurations give the same unpaired-electron count whether the ligand is weak or strong field.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — I, II, III.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2025Set ap-2025-05-19-AN1 markMCQQ.Which of the following sets are not correctly matched? I) O22+,O22− - diamagnetic II) O2+,O2 - paramagnetic III) O2−,O22− - diamagnetic IV) O2+,O22− - paramagnetic (A) II & III (B) I & II (C) III & IV (D) I & III
›Reveal solutionSolution
Working out the MO electron configuration and unpaired-electron count for each oxygen species shows sets III and IV are mismatched (superoxide O2− is actually paramagnetic, and peroxide O22− is actually diamagnetic).
Concept and Intuition
For O2 and its ions, molecular orbital theory places 12 valence electrons (for neutral O2) into the sequence σ2s, σ∗2s, σ2pz, π2px=π2py, π∗2px=π∗2py. Removing or adding electrons changes how many go into the degenerate π∗ pair, which determines whether unpaired electrons (paramagnetism) exist.
Step-by-Step Solution
- O2 (12 valence e−): fills up to π∗2px1π∗2py1 — 2 unpaired electrons ⟹ paramagnetic.
- O22+ (10 e−, remove 2 from π∗): π∗ is empty ⟹ all electrons paired ⟹ diamagnetic.
- O2+ (11 e−, remove 1 from π∗): one π∗ orbital has 1 electron ⟹ 1 unpaired electron ⟹ paramagnetic.
- O2− (13 e−, add 1 to π∗): π∗2px2π∗2py1 ⟹ 1 unpaired electron ⟹ paramagnetic (not diamagnetic).
- O22− (14 e−, add 2 to π∗): π∗2px2π∗2py2 ⟹ all paired ⟹ diamagnetic.
- Now check each set:
- I) O22+ (diamagnetic ✓), O22− (diamagnetic ✓) → correctly matched.
- II) O2+ (paramagnetic ✓), O2 (paramagnetic ✓) → correctly matched.
- III) O2− (paramagnetic, but claimed diamagnetic ✗), O22− (diamagnetic ✓) → incorrectly matched (fails on O2−).
- IV) O2+ (paramagnetic ✓), O22− (diamagnetic, but claimed paramagnetic ✗) → incorrectly matched (fails on O22−).
- So the sets NOT correctly matched are III and IV.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming superoxide (O2−) is diamagnetic just because it's an anion — it actually has an odd number of valence electrons (13), so it must have at least one unpaired electron.
- Mixing up which of O22+/O22− is diamagnetic and which of O2+/O2− is paramagnetic.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — III & IV.
ANSWER: C
- AP EAPCET 2025Set ap-2025-05-19-FN1 markMCQQ.Match the following List-I (Complex) List-II (Number of unpaired electrons) A) [MnCl6]3− I) 5 B) [FeF6]3− II) 2 C) [Mn(CN)6]3− III) 0 D) [Co(C2O4)3]3− IV) 4 The correct answer is (A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (B) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
›Reveal solutionSolution
Working out the oxidation state and d-electron count of the central metal in each complex, then applying crystal field theory (weak-field ligands give high spin, strong-field ligands give low spin) gives the unpaired-electron counts: A=4, B=5, C=2, D=0 — matching option (D).
Concept and Intuition
For octahedral transition-metal complexes, the number of unpaired electrons depends on (i) the metal's oxidation state and resulting dn configuration, and (ii) whether the ligand is weak-field (high spin, electrons spread out over t2g and eg following Hund's rule) or strong-field (low spin, electrons pair up in t2g before occupying eg). Halide ligands (Cl−, F−) are weak field; CN− is strong field; oxalate is a chelating ligand that with Co3+ specifically gives a well-known diamagnetic (low-spin) complex.
Step-by-Step Solution
- A) [MnCl6]3−: Mn is +3 here (d4 since Mn is group 7, d4 for Mn3+). Cl− is weak field ⇒ high spin: t2g3eg1 ⇒ 4 unpaired electrons ⇒ matches IV.
- B) [FeF6]3−: Fe3+ is d5. F− is weak field ⇒ high spin: t2g3eg2, all 5 electrons unpaired ⇒ matches I.
- C) [Mn(CN)6]3−: Mn3+ is d4 again, but CN− is strong field ⇒ low spin: t2g4eg0 ⇒ 2 unpaired electrons ⇒ matches II.
- D) [Co(C2O4)3]3−: Co3+ is d6. This well-known complex is diamagnetic (low spin): t2g6eg0 ⇒ 0 unpaired electrons ⇒ matches III.
- Putting it together: A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III, which is option (D).
Common Mistakes
- Assuming Mn3+ is always high spin — the same ion can be low spin with a strong-field ligand like CN− (options A and C both feature Mn3+ but differ in spin state due to the ligand).
- Forgetting that [Co(C2O4)3]3−, despite oxalate not being an extremely strong field ligand in the general spectrochemical series, is experimentally known to be diamagnetic for Co3+ (a d6 ion, which is especially prone to pairing).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.
ANSWER: D
- AP EAPCET 2025Set ap-2025-05-20-AN1 markMCQQ.Consider the following complex ions (only = only) I) [Fe(CN)6]3− II) [Co(CN)6]3− III) [Mn(CN)6]4− IV) [Fe(CN)6]4− Identify the complex ion/s with the least spin only magnetic moment (in BM). (A) II & IV only (B) I only (C) III only (D) I & III only
›Reveal solutionSolution
With the strong-field ligand CN−, d6 metal ions (Co3+, Fe2+) become perfectly diamagnetic (low-spin t2g6), giving the least possible spin-only moment of 0 BM.
Concept and Intuition
Whether a complex is high spin or low spin depends on the ligand field strength versus the pairing energy. CN− sits at the strong end of the spectrochemical series, so it always forces low spin in octahedral 3d complexes. Once you know the metal's dn configuration, low-spin filling (fill t2g completely before touching eg) tells you the unpaired electron count directly.
Step-by-Step Solution
- [Fe(CN)6]3−: Fe3+ is 3d5. Low spin: t2g5eg0 → 3 orbitals hold 5 electrons (2+2+1) → 1 unpaired → μ=1×3=1.73 BM.
- [Co(CN)6]3−: Co3+ is 3d6. Low spin: t2g6eg0 (all three t2g orbitals doubly filled) → 0 unpaired → μ=0 BM.
- [Mn(CN)6]4−: Mn2+ is 3d5 (same electron count as Fe3+). Low spin t2g5 → 1 unpaired → μ=1.73 BM.
- [Fe(CN)6]4−: Fe2+ is 3d6 (same as Co3+). Low spin t2g6 → 0 unpaired → μ=0 BM.
- Comparing all four: I and III give 1.73 BM; II and IV give 0 BM, which is the least possible value.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming high-spin configuration by habit (forgetting CN− is strong field) and getting 5 unpaired electrons for the d5 ions instead of 1.
- Miscounting t2g6 as having unpaired electrons — all three orbitals are exactly filled (2 each), so it is diamagnetic.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — II & IV only.
ANSWER: A
- AP EAPCET 2025Set ap-2025-05-20-FN1 markMCQQ.In 3d series, a metal 'X' has highest second ionisation enthalpy. The spin only magnetic moment (in BM) of X+ ion is (A) 1.73 (B) 0.0 (C) 2.84 (D) 5.92
›Reveal solutionSolution
The 3d-series metal with the highest second ionisation enthalpy is copper, because Cu⁺ has an extra-stable filled 3d10 configuration; this ion is diamagnetic, so its spin-only moment is 0.0 BM.
Concept and Intuition
Ionisation enthalpies show characteristic anomalies in the 3d transition series tied to especially stable electron configurations — half-filled (d5) and fully-filled (d10) subshells resist further electron removal. While Cr (which forms the stable 3d5 configuration in Cr⁺) is often the first anomaly students recall, it is actually copper whose second ionisation enthalpy is exceptionally and uniquely high across the whole row: Cu already achieves the special 3d104s0 (Cu⁺) configuration on losing just its first electron, so knocking out a second electron means breaking into this very stable, fully-filled d-subshell — requiring markedly more energy than for its neighbours.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Ground state of Cu: [Ar]3d104s1.
- First ionisation removes the 4s electron: Cu+=[Ar]3d10 — a fully-filled, extra-stable d-subshell.
- The second ionisation enthalpy of Cu (removing an electron from this stable 3d10 to give Cu²⁺, 3d9) is measurably higher than that of its 3d-series neighbours, making Cu the metal 'X' with the highest second ionisation enthalpy.
- So X+=Cu+, configuration 3d10: all 10 d-electrons are paired (5 orbitals, each doubly occupied), leaving zero unpaired electrons.
- Spin-only magnetic moment: μ=n(n+2) BM with n=0 unpaired electrons, giving μ=0.0 BM.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming Cr is always 'the anomaly' and picking Cr⁺ (3d5, which would give 5.92 BM) without checking that it's specifically the second ionisation enthalpy in question, for which Cu is the true outlier.
- Forgetting that a fully-filled d-subshell is diamagnetic (0 unpaired electrons), not confusing it with the half-filled case.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — 0.0.
ANSWER: B
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-23-AN1 markMCQQ.Identify the complex ion with spin only magnetic moment of 4.90 BM. (A) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (B) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (C) [Mn(CN)6]3− (D) [MnCl6]3−
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests computing the number of unpaired electrons in transition-metal complexes based on ligand field strength (CFT) and matching to a given magnetic moment. The answer is [MnCl6]3−.
Concept and Intuition
Spin-only magnetic moment is given by μ=n(n+2) BM, where n is the number of unpaired electrons. To find n for a complex, determine the metal's oxidation state and d-electron count, then decide whether the ligand is strong-field (causes pairing → low spin) or weak-field (electrons stay unpaired → high spin) using the spectrochemical series.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Given μ=4.90 BM. Solve n(n+2)=4.90⇒n(n+2)=24.01⇒n=4 (since 4×6=24).
- (A) [Co(NH3)6]3+: Co is +3, d6. NH3 is a strong field ligand → low spin: t2g6eg0, 0 unpaired electrons. Not a match.
- (B) [Cr(NH3)6]3+: Cr is +3, d3. t2g3, always 3 unpaired electrons (no pairing possible in only 3 orbitals with 3 electrons). μ=15=3.87 BM. Not a match.
- (C) [Mn(CN)6]3−: Mn is +3, d4. CN− is a strong field ligand → low spin: t2g4eg0, giving 2 unpaired electrons (3 singly occupied + 1 paired). μ=8=2.83 BM. Not a match.
- (D) [MnCl6]3−: Mn is +3, d4. Cl− is a weak field ligand → high spin: t2g3eg1, giving 4 unpaired electrons. μ=24=4.90 BM — matches exactly.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting that CN− is strong-field (causes pairing) while Cl− is weak-field (favors high spin), leading to wrong spin-state assumptions.
- Miscounting d-electrons after removing the correct number of electrons for the metal's oxidation state.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D) — [MnCl6]3−.
ANSWER: D
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-26-AN1 markMCQQ.Identify the ion (hydrated in solution) which is not correctly matched with its spin only magnetic moment (in BM) given in brackets (A) Cr3+ (4.90) (B) Cu2+ (1.73) (C) Co3+ (4.90) (D) Fe2+ (4.90)
›Reveal solutionSolution
Spin-only magnetic moment μ=n(n+2) BM depends on the number of unpaired d-electrons. Cr3+ (d3) always has 3 unpaired electrons giving μ≈3.87 BM, so pairing it with 4.90 BM (which needs 4 unpaired electrons) is the incorrect match.
Concept and Intuition
The spin-only formula μ=n(n+2) BM depends only on the number of unpaired electrons n in the ion's d-subshell. For a d3 configuration, all three electrons must occupy separate t2g orbitals by Hund's rule — there is no possible arrangement (high-spin or low-spin) that changes this, so d3 always gives exactly 3 unpaired electrons. Ions like d6 or d9 can vary in unpaired count depending on ligand field strength, so those need checking against the specific hydrated (weak-field, high-spin) case.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Cr3+: configuration [Ar]3d3. In any octahedral environment (weak or strong field), d3 always has 3 unpaired electrons (t2g3). μ=3(3+2)=15≈3.87 BM — not 4.90 BM as option (A) states. This is the mismatch.
- Cu2+: [Ar]3d9, always 1 unpaired electron regardless of field. μ=1(1+2)=3≈1.73 BM — matches option (B), correctly matched.
- Co3+ (hydrated): [Ar]3d6. The hydrated (aqua) Co3+ ion is a well-known high-spin exception (t2g4eg2), giving 4 unpaired electrons: μ=4(4+2)=24≈4.90 BM — matches option (C), correctly matched.
- Fe2+ (hydrated): [Ar]3d6, high-spin in the weak-field aqua complex (t2g4eg2), also 4 unpaired electrons, μ≈4.90 BM — matches option (D), correctly matched.
- Only Cr3+ is mismatched (claimed 4.90 BM but is actually 3.87 BM), so (A) is the answer to 'not correctly matched'.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming all d6-type or higher ions must have the same unpaired count as d3 — forgetting that d3 is a special case with a fixed unpaired count regardless of spin state.
- Miscounting Cr³⁺ as d4 or d5 from careless electron-configuration bookkeeping.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A) — Cr3+ (4.90) is the wrongly matched pair; its actual moment is ≈3.87 BM.
ANSWER: A
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