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Q.Assertion (A): The maximum value of (cos⁡−1x)2(\cos^{-1}x)^2 is π2\pi^2. Reason (R): The range of the principal value branch of cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x is [−π2,π2]\left[-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right].

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
CBSECBSE Class XII Board 2023MCQ· 1mImportance★★★★★
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The assertion is true because cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x reaches its maximum value π\pi at x=−1x = -1, giving (cos⁡−1x)2=π2(\cos^{-1}x)^2 = \pi^2. The reason is false because the principal value branch of cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x is [0,π][0, \pi], not [−π2,π2][-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}]. The correct option is (c).

The key to this problem is knowing the correct range of the inverse cosine function. Many students confuse the ranges of different inverse trigonometric functions, so let's be precise about what cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x actually means.

The principal value branch of cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x is defined for x∈[−1,1]x \in [-1, 1] and outputs angles in [0,π][0, \pi]. This is different from sin⁡−1x\sin^{-1}x, which outputs angles in [−π2,π2][-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}]. The reason for choosing [0,π][0, \pi] is that cosine is one-to-one (strictly decreasing) on this interval, making the inverse well-defined.

Watch out

The range [−π2,π2][-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}] belongs to sin⁡−1x\sin^{-1}x and tan⁡−1x\tan^{-1}x, not to cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x. This is a common source of confusion.

Now let's verify each statement:

Checking Assertion (A):

  1. Since cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x has domain [−1,1][-1, 1] and range [0,π][0, \pi], the function y=cos⁡−1xy = \cos^{-1}x takes values between 00 and π\pi.

  2. The function f(y)=y2f(y) = y^2 is increasing for y≥0y \geq 0. Therefore, (cos⁡−1x)2(\cos^{-1}x)^2 is maximized when cos⁡−1x\cos^{-1}x itself is maximized. …

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