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Worked Examples · Example 2

Q.Show that f:R→Rf: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} defined by f(x)=2x+3f(x) = 2x+3 is a bijective function.

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✓ Free question

One-one: Suppose f(x1)=f(x2)f(x_1) = f(x_2) for some x1,x2∈Rx_1, x_2 \in \mathbb{R}. Then

2x1+3=2x2+3 ⇒ 2x1=2x2 ⇒ x1=x22x_1+3 = 2x_2+3 \ \Rightarrow\ 2x_1 = 2x_2 \ \Rightarrow\ x_1 = x_2

Since f(x1)=f(x2)f(x_1)=f(x_2) forces x1=x2x_1=x_2, no two distinct real numbers can give the same output, so ff is one-one.

Onto: Let y∈Ry \in \mathbb{R} be any element of the codomain. We ask whether there exists x∈Rx \in \mathbb{R} with f(x)=yf(x)=y, i.e. 2x+3=y2x+3=y. Solving,

x=y−32x = \frac{y-3}{2}

Since yy is a real number, y−32\dfrac{y-3}{2} is also a real number, so a valid xx in the domain always exists for every yy in the codomain. Hence ff is onto.

Since ff is both one-one and onto, ff is bijective.

✓Final answer

f(x)=2x+3f(x)=2x+3 is bijective: it is one-one because f(x1)=f(x2)⇒x1=x2f(x_1)=f(x_2) \Rightarrow x_1=x_2, and onto because every real yy has a pre-image x=y−32x=\dfrac{y-3}{2}.

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