Q.Which of the following complexes formed by Cu2+ ions is most stable?
Concept understanding — Magnetic Moment Calculation
From a Paperclip to a Magnet: The Intuition
You already know that a magnet can pick up iron nails. But what is actually happening inside that nail when it gets near the magnet? And why does a plastic comb, rubbed on hair, pick up tiny bits of paper — but never iron filings?
The answer lies in magnetization — the process by which a material becomes magnetic.
Think of a piece of iron as a chaotic crowd of tiny compass needles. Each needle is an atomic magnetic moment (a tiny magnet, arising from the spin of electrons). In unmagnetized iron, these needles point in random directions. Their magnetic effects cancel out, so the iron as a whole shows no net magnetism.
Now bring a strong magnet close. Its magnetic field acts like a command: "Line up!" The tiny compass needles inside the iron start rotating, aligning themselves with the external field. The more they align, the stronger the iron's own magnetic field becomes. This alignment is magnetization.
Magnetization is not the same as inducing a current. It is a purely magnetic reorientation of atomic dipoles inside a material.
The Precise Definition
Magnetization (M) is the net magnetic dipole moment per unit volume of a material. It tells you how strongly a material is magnetized — how many tiny atomic magnets are aligned, and in which direction.
If a material has N atoms per unit volume, each with an average magnetic moment μavg, then:
M=Nμavg
The SI unit of M is amperes per metre (A/m). Why? Because a magnetic dipole moment has units of A·m², and dividing by volume (m³) gives A/m.
M=volumetotal magnetic dipole moment
How Magnetization Connects to the Magnetic Field
When a material gets magnetized, it produces its own magnetic field. The total magnetic field B inside the material is the sum of:
- The external applied field H (caused by free currents, like the current in a solenoid)
- The material's response — the magnetization M
The fundamental relation is:
B=μ0(H+M)
where μ0=4π×10−7T⋅m/A is the permeability of free space.
Do not confuse H (magnetic field intensity, or "magnetizing field") with B (magnetic flux density). H is what you apply; M is what the material does; B is the total field you measure.
The Three Kinds of Magnetic Materials
Not all materials respond the same way to an external field. The magnetization M is proportional to H for most materials (at least for small fields):
M=χmH
where χm is the magnetic susceptibility — a dimensionless number that tells you how easily a material magnetizes.
| Material Type | χm | Behaviour | Example |
|---|---|---|---|
| Diamagnetic | Small and negative (≈−10−5) | Weakly repelled by a magnet; M opposes H | Water, copper, bismuth |
| Paramagnetic | Small and positive (≈10−5 to 10−3) | Weakly attracted; M aligns with H | Aluminium, oxygen gas |
| Ferromagnetic | Large and positive (≫1) | Strongly attracted; M can be huge and persists even after H is removed | Iron, nickel, cobalt |
Ferromagnetic materials have spontaneous magnetization — their atomic moments align even without an external field, forming magnetic domains. Magnetization in these materials is not linear; it saturates and shows hysteresis.
A Simple Example
Take a long iron rod placed inside a solenoid carrying current I. The solenoid produces a uniform field H inside. The iron rod becomes magnetized: its atomic moments align, producing M in the same direction as H.
If χm for iron is about 5000, then M=5000H. The total field inside the rod becomes:
B=μ0(H+5000H)=μ0(5001)H
That is why an iron core can amplify the magnetic field of a solenoid by thousands of times.
The Bottom Line
Magnetization is the measure of how much a material becomes magnetic when placed in an external field. It arises from the alignment of atomic magnetic dipoles. For linear materials, M=χmH. For ferromagnets, the response is nonlinear, strong, and can be permanent — that is how you get a bar magnet from a piece of iron.
Magnetic moment calculation using the spin-only formula is a numerically important topic in the NCERT/CBSE Class 12 Chemistry chapters on d-Block Elements and Coordination Compounds, and ‘spin only formula magnetic moment’ is a frequently searched important-question topic for board exams, JEE Main and NEET. Calculating the number of unpaired electrons correctly is a skill tested repeatedly in competitive-exam chemistry numericals.
Why this formula?
Magnetic Moment Calculation: Why the Formula Holds
Let's build this from first principles — understanding the why before the formula.
1. What is Magnetic Moment?
A magnetic moment (μ) is a measure of the strength and orientation of a magnet or current loop. It tells us how strongly an object will interact with an external magnetic field.
The core idea: any moving charge creates a magnetic field. A loop of current is like a tiny bar magnet — its magnetic moment quantifies this.
2. The Fundamental Formula: Current Loop
The Setup
Consider a planar loop of wire carrying a steady current I, enclosing an area A.
Why μ=IA?
Step 1: Force on a moving charge
A charge q moving with velocity v in a magnetic field B experiences:
F=q(v×B)
Step 2: Torque on a current loop
For a rectangular loop of sides a and b (A=ab), placed in a uniform B:
- Current I means charge flows. On side of length a, the force magnitude is F=IaB (since I=tq and v=ta).
- These forces on opposite sides form a couple (equal, opposite, not collinear).
- Torque τ=force×perpendicular distance=(IaB)×(bsinθ)
Step 3: Recognize the pattern
τ=I(ab)Bsinθ=IABsinθ
This looks exactly like:
τ=μBsinθ
Comparing, we identify:
μ=IA
Why this works: The torque on a current loop is proportional to the current and the area — this product naturally defines the magnetic moment.
3. For a Single Moving Charge (Orbital Magnetic Moment)
The Setup
An electron of charge −e moves in a circular orbit of radius r with speed v.
Why μ=2evr?
Step 1: Treat orbit as a current loop
- Time for one revolution: T=v2πr
- Current (charge per unit time): I=Te=2πrev
Step 2: Apply μ=IA
- Area of orbit: A=πr2
- So: μ=(2πrev)(πr2)=2evr
Step 3: Express in terms of angular momentum
- Orbital angular momentum: L=mvr
- Therefore: μ=2meL
Why this matters: The magnetic moment is directly proportional to angular momentum. The factor 2me is called the gyromagnetic ratio — it links mechanics to magnetism.
4. For a Solenoid (Many Turns)
The Setup
A solenoid of N turns, length l, carrying current I, cross-sectional area A.
Why μ=NIA?
Each turn contributes μturn=IA. For N identical turns in series:
μtotal=N⋅(IA)=NIA
If the solenoid has n=N/l turns per unit length:
μ=(nl)IA
Key insight: The magnetic moment adds linearly for multiple turns because each turn's torque contribution adds.
5. Summary Table of Key Results
| System | Formula | Why |
|---|---|---|
| Single current loop | μ=IA | Torque on loop ∝IA |
| Orbiting electron | μ=2meL | Current from orbital motion |
| Solenoid | μ=NIA | Sum of individual loop moments |
| General definition | μ=21∫r×JdV | For continuous current distributions |
6. Exam-Relevant Takeaway
Always remember:
- Magnetic moment always involves current × area (or equivalent)
- For particles, it's charge-to-mass ratio × angular momentum
- Direction: given by right-hand rule (curl fingers along current, thumb points along μ)
The formula isn't arbitrary — it emerges naturally from the torque a current loop experiences in a magnetic field.
The key idea is that the stability constant K (or its logarithm) directly measures how stable a complex is — a higher logK means the equilibrium lies further to the right, so the complex is more stable.
Step 1: For each complex, the given logK value is the logarithm of the formation (stability) constant.
Step 2: Compare the numerical values:
- (i) logK=11.6
- (ii) logK=27.3
- (iii) logK=15.4
- (iv) logK=8.9
Step 3: The largest logK is 27.3, corresponding to [Cu(CN)4]2−.
The most stable complex is [Cu(CN)4]2− (option ii), with logK=27.3.
The stability of a complex is directly measured by its formation constant K; the larger the logK, the more stable the complex. Here, the complex with logK=27.3 is the most stable.
The question asks which complex is most stable. In coordination chemistry, the stability of a complex is quantified by its formation constant (also called stability constant) K. The reaction given is the formation of the complex from the metal ion and ligands. A larger K means the equilibrium lies further to the right — the complex is more stable and less likely to dissociate.
The values are given as logK, so we compare these directly. No conversion is needed: the highest logK corresponds to the highest K, hence the most stable complex.
Let’s go through each option:
-
Option (i): Cu2++4NH3⇌[Cu(NH3)4]2+, logK=11.6
This is a moderately stable complex. Ammonia is a good ligand, but not exceptionally strong for copper(II).
-
Option (ii): Cu2++4CN−⇌[Cu(CN)4]2−, logK=27.3
Cyanide ion is a very strong ligand (high field strength, forms strong σ and π bonds). The logK is dramatically higher than the others — over 10 orders of magnitude larger in K than the next closest.
-
Option (iii): Cu2++2en⇌[Cu(en)2]2+, logK=15.4
Ethylenediamine (en) is a bidentate ligand, which gives a chelate effect — this usually increases stability compared to monodentate ligands like NH3. Indeed, logK=15.4 is higher than for NH3 (11.6), but still far below CN−.
-
Option (iv): Cu2++4H2O⇌[Cu(H2O)4]2+, logK=8.9
Water is a weak ligand. This is the least stable complex here.
A common mistake is to think that chelating ligands (like en) always form the most stable complexes. While the chelate effect does enhance stability, the intrinsic ligand strength matters more. Here, CN− is such a powerful ligand that it overcomes the chelate advantage.
You don’t need to calculate K from logK — just compare the logK values directly. The largest logK means the largest K, hence the most stable complex.
The most stable complex is formed with cyanide ions, option (ii).
Method: Stability Constant Comparison
The stability of a complex is directly measured by its formation constant (Kf).
A higher Kf means the complex is more stable — it forms more readily and dissociates less.
Steps
- Recall the relationship The given values are logK (base 10). The actual formation constant is:
Kf=10logK
-
Compare logK values directly
Since Kf increases with logK, the complex with the largest logK is the most stable.
-
Identify the largest logK
- (i) logK=11.6
- (ii) logK=27.3
- (iii) logK=15.4
- (iv) logK=8.9
logK=27.3 is the highest.
-
Conclude
The complex with CN− is the most stable.
Final Answer
Option (ii): [Cu(CN)4]2− is the most stable complex.
Common Mistakes & How to Avoid Them
Mistake 1: Confusing logK with K
The error: Students compare logK values directly and think the largest logK means the least stable complex.
Why it's wrong:
A higher logK means a larger equilibrium constant K, which indicates greater stability of the complex.
How to avoid:
Remember:
- logK↑⟹K↑⟹ more stable complex
- For this question: 27.3>15.4>11.6>8.9, so option (ii) is most stable.
Mistake 2: Forgetting that logK is directly proportional to stability
The error: Some students think a lower logK means the reaction "goes more to completion" — this is backwards.
Why it's wrong:
The equilibrium constant K for complex formation is:
K=[Cu2+][ligand]n[complex]
A larger K means the equilibrium lies far to the right — more complex formed, hence more stable.
How to avoid:
Write the expression for K and reason:
- Big K → products favoured → stable complex
- Small K → reactants favoured → unstable complex
Mistake 3: Ignoring the denticity of ligands
The error: Students compare logK values without considering that en (ethylenediamine) is bidentate, while NH3, CN−, and H2O are monodentate.
Why it matters:
A bidentate ligand like en forms a chelate ring, which gives extra stability (chelate effect). Even though logK for en (15.4) is less than for CN− (27.3), the chelate effect is already included in the given logK value.
How to avoid:
- The logK values already account for denticity — compare them directly.
- Do not try to "adjust" the values manually.
Mistake 4: Overthinking magnetic moment or geometry
The error: Students try to use magnetic moment or crystal field theory to decide stability.
Why it's wrong:
The question gives experimental logK values — these are the direct measure of stability. Magnetic moment tells you about unpaired electrons, not thermodynamic stability.
How to avoid:
- When logK (or K) is given, use it directly.
- Save magnetic moment reasoning for questions about geometry, spin state, or colour.
Mistake 5: Misreading the question as "least stable"
The error: Students accidentally pick the smallest logK (option iv) because they read "most stable" as "least stable".
How to avoid:
- Circle the word "most" or "least" in the question.
- Double-check: largest logK = most stable.
Final Answer
Most stable complex: Option (ii) [Cu(CN)4]2− with logK=27.3
Quick check:
- (ii) logK=27.3 → largest → most stable ✓
- (iv) logK=8.9 → smallest → least stable
Showing the 12 most recent of 14 on this concept.
- COMEDK 2026Set 2026-M1 markMCQQ.The ion that has a spin only magnetic moment of 5.9 BM is: (A) Fe3+ (B) Mn3+ (C) Ni2+ (D) Co3+
›Reveal solutionSolution
The spin-only magnetic moment is given by μ=n(n+2) BM, where n is the number of unpaired electrons. A value of 5.9 BM corresponds to n=5 unpaired electrons. Among the options, only Fe3+ has 5 unpaired electrons, so the correct option is (A).
The key concept here is the spin-only magnetic moment formula:
μ=n(n+2) BM
where n is the number of unpaired electrons. This formula works well for first-row transition metal ions because orbital angular momentum is often "quenched" by the crystal field. The experimental value 5.9 BM is very close to the theoretical value for n=5, which is 5×7=35≈5.92 BM. So we need to find which ion has exactly 5 unpaired electrons in its ground state.
Let’s check each option step by step:
-
Determine the electronic configuration of each ion
- Fe3+: Atomic number of Fe = 26. Neutral Fe: [Ar]3d64s2. Removing three electrons (first from 4s, then from 3d) gives [Ar]3d5.
- Mn3+: Atomic number of Mn = 25. Neutral Mn: [Ar]3d54s2. Removing three electrons gives [Ar]3d4.
- Ni2+: Atomic number of Ni = 28. Neutral Ni: [Ar]3d84s2. Removing two electrons gives [Ar]3d8.
- Co3+: Atomic number of Co = 27. Neutral Co: [Ar]3d74s2. Removing three electrons gives [Ar]3d6.
-
Count unpaired electrons using Hund’s rule
- For Fe3+ (3d5): All five d-orbitals are half-filled, each with one electron → 5 unpaired electrons.
- For Mn3+ (3d4): Four electrons occupy four orbitals singly (Hund’s rule) → 4 unpaired electrons.
- For Ni2+ (3d8): The d-orbitals fill as: ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑ (two paired, two singly, one singly) → 2 unpaired electrons.
- For Co3+ (3d6): In the high-spin state (common for weak-field ligands), it would be ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑↓ ↑ → 4 unpaired electrons. In low-spin (strong field), it would be ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ → 0 unpaired. But the magnetic moment 5.9 BM is far too large for either case.
-
Match with the magnetic moment
- n=5 gives μ=35≈5.92 BM, which matches 5.9 BM.
- n=4 gives μ=24≈4.90 BM.
- n=2 gives μ=8≈2.83 BM.
- n=0 gives μ=0 BM. Only Fe3+ has n=5.
Watch outA common mistake is to forget that for Co3+, the 3d6 configuration can be low-spin (0 unpaired) in many complexes, but even high-spin gives only 4 unpaired electrons — never 5. So it cannot match 5.9 BM.
TipMemorize the "magic numbers": 3≈1.73 (1 e⁻), 8≈2.83 (2 e⁻), 15≈3.87 (3 e⁻), 24≈4.90 (4 e⁻), 35≈5.92 (5 e⁻). A value near 5.9 BM is a dead giveaway for 5 unpaired electrons.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A).
ANSWER: A
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- KCET 2026Set D31 markMCQQ.The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ ion is (A) 3.87 BM (B) 4.90 BM (C) 5.92 BM (D) 2.84 BM
›Reveal solutionSolution
The spin-only magnetic moment depends on the number of unpaired electrons in the ion's d-configuration.
Step 1 — Electron configuration of Cr²⁺
Neutral Cr (Z = 24) is [Ar]3d54s1. Forming Cr2+ removes the single 4s electron first, then one 3d electron, giving Cr2+=[Ar]3d4.
Step 2 — Counting unpaired electrons
By Hund's rule, the 4 electrons in the 3d subshell occupy 4 different orbitals singly before any pairing occurs, so n=4 unpaired electrons.
Step 3 — Applying the spin-only formula
μ=n(n+2) BM =4×6=24≈4.90 BM.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — 4.90 BM.
- COMEDK 2025Set 2025-A1 markMCQQ.Which is the correct order of increasing number of unpaired electrons in the following ions? A=Cr2+(Z=24)B=Cu2+(Z=29)C=Ni2+(Z=28)D=Fe3+(Z=26) (A) B<C<A<D (B) D<C<A<B (C) B<C<D<A (D) C<B<D<A
›Reveal solutionSolution
The number of unpaired electrons depends on the electronic configuration of each ion, considering the d-orbital filling and Hund's rule. The correct order is B (Cu²⁺, 1 unpaired) < C (Ni²⁺, 2 unpaired) < A (Cr²⁺, 4 unpaired) < D (Fe³⁺, 5 unpaired), which corresponds to option (A).
Concept & Intuition
The key is to write the ground-state electron configurations for each ion, focusing on the d-electrons. Transition metal ions lose s-electrons first, then d-electrons if needed. Unpaired electrons arise from half-filled or partially filled d-orbitals following Hund's rule (each orbital gets one electron before pairing). The more unpaired electrons, the higher the magnetic moment. Here, we count them directly.
Step-by-step reasoning
-
Cr²⁺ (Z = 24)
- Neutral Cr: [Ar] 4s¹ 3d⁵ (exception: half-filled d gives stability).
- Remove two electrons: first from 4s, then from 3d → Cr²⁺: [Ar] 3d⁴.
- Hund's rule: four d-orbitals each get one electron, one orbital empty → 4 unpaired electrons.
-
Cu²⁺ (Z = 29)
- Neutral Cu: [Ar] 4s¹ 3d¹⁰ (exception: fully filled d).
- Remove two electrons: one from 4s, one from 3d → Cu²⁺: [Ar] 3d⁹.
- One d-orbital has a single electron (the rest are paired) → 1 unpaired electron.
-
Ni²⁺ (Z = 28)
- Neutral Ni: [Ar] 4s² 3d⁸.
- Remove two 4s electrons → Ni²⁺: [Ar] 3d⁸.
- Filling: five orbitals get 2, 2, 2, 1, 1 (two unpaired) → 2 unpaired electrons.
-
Fe³⁺ (Z = 26)
- Neutral Fe: [Ar] 4s² 3d⁶.
- Remove three electrons: two from 4s, one from 3d → Fe³⁺: [Ar] 3d⁵.
- Half-filled d: each orbital has one electron → 5 unpaired electrons.
TipRemember: For Cr and Cu, the neutral atoms have anomalous configurations (4s¹ not 4s²) due to half/full d-subshell stability. This carries over to their ions.
Ordering by increasing unpaired electrons:
Cu²⁺ (1) < Ni²⁺ (2) < Cr²⁺ (4) < Fe³⁺ (5).
This matches option (A).
Watch outA common mistake is to forget that Cr²⁺ has 4 unpaired electrons (not 2 or 6). Also, Fe³⁺ has 5, not 3 — losing three electrons from Fe leaves a half-filled d⁵.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A).
ANSWER: A
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- COMEDK 2025Set 2025-A1 markMCQQ.The correct order of spin only magnetic moments among the following is: [Given: Atomic numbers: Mn=25,Fe=26,Co=27 ] (A) [Fe(CN)6]4−>[MnCl4]2−>[CoCl4]2− (B) [MnCl4]2−>[CoCl4]2−>[Fe(CN)6]4− (C) [Fe(CN)6]4−>[CoCl4]2−>[MnCl4]2− (D) [MnCl4]2−>[Fe(CN)6]4−>[CoCl4]2−
›Reveal solutionSolution
The spin-only magnetic moment depends on the number of unpaired electrons, which is determined by the metal’s oxidation state and the ligand field (strong-field CN⁻ vs. weak-field Cl⁻). The correct order is [MnCl4]2−>[CoCl4]2−>[Fe(CN)6]4−, corresponding to option (B).
Concept & Intuition
The spin-only magnetic moment is given by μ=n(n+2) Bohr magnetons, where n is the number of unpaired electrons. So the problem reduces to finding n for each complex. The key twist: ligands like CN⁻ are strong-field (low-spin), causing maximum pairing, while Cl⁻ is weak-field (high-spin), favoring unpaired electrons. Also, geometry matters — here all complexes are either octahedral or tetrahedral, which affects the d-orbital splitting and thus the electron configuration.
Step-by-step reasoning
-
Determine oxidation states and d-electron counts
- [Fe(CN)6]4−: CN⁻ is −1 each, so Fe must be +2 (since 6×(−1) + x = −4 → x = +2). Fe (Z=26): [Ar]3d⁶. Fe²⁺: 3d⁶.
- [MnCl4]2−: Cl⁻ is −1 each, so Mn is +2 (4×(−1) + x = −2 → x = +2). Mn (Z=25): [Ar]3d⁵. Mn²⁺: 3d⁵.
- [CoCl4]2−: Cl⁻ is −1 each, so Co is +2 (4×(−1) + x = −2 → x = +2). Co (Z=27): [Ar]3d⁷. Co²⁺: 3d⁷.
-
Analyze [Fe(CN)6]4− — octahedral, strong-field
CN⁻ is a strong-field ligand, causing large splitting. For Fe²⁺ (d⁶) in an octahedral field, strong-field means low-spin: all electrons pair in the t2g set first. Configuration: t2g6eg0. All 6 electrons are paired → 0 unpaired electrons.
μ=0(0+2)=0 BM.
-
Analyze [MnCl4]2− — tetrahedral, weak-field
Cl⁻ is a weak-field ligand. Tetrahedral splitting is smaller than octahedral, so always high-spin. Mn²⁺ is d⁵. In tetrahedral geometry, the e set is lower in energy than t2. High-spin d⁵: each of the five d-orbitals gets one electron (Hund’s rule) → 5 unpaired electrons.
μ=5(5+2)=35≈5.92 BM.
-
Analyze [CoCl4]2− — tetrahedral, weak-field
Co²⁺ is d⁷. In a tetrahedral weak field, the configuration is high-spin: e4t23. The e set holds 4 electrons (two pairs), and the t2 set holds 3 unpaired electrons (one each) → 3 unpaired electrons.
μ=3(3+2)=15≈3.87 BM.
-
Compare the magnetic moments
- [MnCl4]2−: ~5.92 BM (largest)
- [CoCl4]2−: ~3.87 BM (middle)
- [Fe(CN)6]4−: 0 BM (smallest) So the order is: [MnCl4]2−>[CoCl4]2−>[Fe(CN)6]4−.
Watch outA common mistake is to forget that CN⁻ is strong-field and forces low-spin on Fe²⁺, giving zero unpaired electrons. If you assumed high-spin for Fe(CN)₆⁴⁻, you’d get 4 unpaired electrons and the wrong order.
TipFor tetrahedral complexes, always assume high-spin because the splitting is too small to overcome pairing energy — even with strong-field ligands, tetrahedral low-spin is extremely rare.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B).
ANSWER: B
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- COMEDK 2025Set 2025-E1 markMCQQ.Arrange the complex ions in the increasing order of their magnetic moments A. [Fe(H2O)6]2+ B. [Fe(CN)6]4− C. [Fe(CN)6]3− D. [FeF6]3− (A) D<A<B<C (B) B<C<A<D (C) D<C<B<A (D) A<D<C<B
›Reveal solutionSolution
The magnetic moment depends on the number of unpaired electrons, which is determined by the metal’s oxidation state, ligand field strength (weak vs. strong field), and the resulting high-spin or low-spin configuration. The correct increasing order is B < C < A < D, corresponding to option (B).
Concept & Intuition
Magnetic moment (μ) for a transition metal complex is given by the spin-only formula:
μ=n(n+2) BM
where n is the number of unpaired electrons. So the order of magnetic moments is simply the order of number of unpaired electrons.
To find n, we need:
- The oxidation state of iron in each complex.
- Whether the ligand is weak-field (high-spin) or strong-field (low-spin).
- The d-electron count and how electrons fill the t2g and eg orbitals.
Let’s work through each complex step by step.
1. Determine oxidation states and d-electron counts
- A: [Fe(H2O)6]2+ — Water is neutral, so Fe is +2. Fe²⁺ has electron configuration [Ar] 3d⁶.
- B: [Fe(CN)6]4− — CN⁻ is -1 each, total −6 from ligands, so Fe must be +2 to give overall −4. Again, Fe²⁺, 3d⁶.
- C: [Fe(CN)6]3− — CN⁻ gives −6, so Fe is +3. Fe³⁺ is 3d⁵.
- D: [FeF6]3− — F⁻ is -1 each, total −6, so Fe is +3. Also 3d⁵.
So we have two Fe²⁺ (d⁶) and two Fe³⁺ (d⁵) complexes.
2. Identify ligand field strength
- H₂O is a weak-field ligand (causes small splitting).
- F⁻ is also a weak-field ligand.
- CN⁻ is a strong-field ligand (causes large splitting).
For weak-field ligands, electrons fill according to Hund’s rule (high-spin). For strong-field ligands, pairing occurs before occupying higher orbitals (low-spin).
3. Determine unpaired electrons for each
-
A: Fe²⁺ (d⁶), weak field (H₂O) → high-spin.
In an octahedral field: t2g4eg2 → 4 unpaired electrons.
n=4.
-
B: Fe²⁺ (d⁶), strong field (CN⁻) → low-spin.
All 6 electrons pair in t2g: t2g6eg0 → 0 unpaired electrons.
n=0.
-
C: Fe³⁺ (d⁵), strong field (CN⁻) → low-spin.
Five electrons fill t2g with one pair: t2g5eg0 → 1 unpaired electron.
n=1.
-
D: Fe³⁺ (d⁵), weak field (F⁻) → high-spin.
Hund’s rule: t2g3eg2 → 5 unpaired electrons.
n=5.
4. Order by increasing magnetic moment
Since μ increases with n, the order from smallest to largest n is:
B (0) < C (1) < A (4) < D (5).
Thus the increasing order of magnetic moments is:
B<C<A<D
Watch outA common mistake is to forget that CN⁻ is a strong-field ligand for Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺, leading to low-spin configurations. Another pitfall is assuming all Fe³⁺ complexes have 5 unpaired electrons — but with strong-field ligands, pairing occurs.
TipRemember the spectrochemical series: I⁻ < Br⁻ < Cl⁻ < F⁻ < OH⁻ < H₂O < NH₃ < en < NO₂⁻ < CN⁻ ≈ CO. Ligands to the right cause larger splitting and favor low-spin.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B).
ANSWER: B
- COMEDK 2025Set 2025-M1 markMCQQ.Match the coordination compounds in Column I having the given type of hybridisation of Mn+ ion and magnetic moment as given in Column II. .tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;} .tg td{border-color:black;border-style:solid;border-width:1px;font-family:Arial, sans-serif;font-size:14px; overflow:hidden;padding:10px 5px;word-break:normal;} .tg th{border-color:black;border-style:solid;border-width:1px;font-family:Arial, sans-serif;font-size:14px; font-weight:normal;overflow:hidden;padding:10px 5px;word-break:normal;} .tg .tg-baqh{text-align:center;vertical-align:top} .tg .tg-0lax{text-align:left;vertical-align:top} Coordination compounds Hybridisation & Magnetic nature A. Ni(CO)4 P. sp3,μ=5.92BM B. [Ni(CN)4]2− Q. sp3,μ=2.84BM C. [Ni(Cl)4]2− R. sp3,μ=0 D. [MnBr4]2− S. dsp2,μ=0 (A) A=RB=SC=QD=P (B) A=SB=RC=PD=Q (C) A=SB=PC=RD=Q (D) A=QB=PC=SD=R
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key is to determine the oxidation state, geometry, and number of unpaired electrons for each complex, then match the hybridisation and magnetic moment. The correct matches are A→R, B→S, C→Q, D→P, so option (A) is correct.
We need to match each coordination compound with its hybridisation and magnetic moment. The magnetic moment (in Bohr magnetons, BM) is given by μ=n(n+2) where n is the number of unpaired electrons. Let’s analyse each complex step by step.
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Complex A: Ni(CO)4
- Nickel is in zero oxidation state (CO is neutral).
- CO is a strong field ligand, causing pairing of electrons.
- Ni(0) has atomic number 28: [Ar]3d84s2. In the presence of strong field CO, the 4s electrons are used for bonding, and the 3d electrons pair up.
- The complex is tetrahedral (4 ligands), so hybridisation is sp3.
- All electrons are paired → μ=0 BM.
- So A matches R (sp3,μ=0).
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Complex B: [Ni(CN)4]2−
- CN⁻ is a strong field ligand.
- Oxidation state: Ni + 4(−1) = −2 → Ni is +2.
- Ni²⁺: [Ar]3d8. Strong field CN⁻ causes pairing of 3d electrons, leaving one d-orbital empty.
- Geometry is square planar (4 ligands), hybridisation is dsp2.
- All electrons paired → μ=0 BM.
- So B matches S (dsp2,μ=0).
-
Complex C: [Ni(Cl)4]2−
- Cl⁻ is a weak field ligand.
- Ni is again +2 (same as B).
- Weak field → no pairing; Ni²⁺ has 8 d-electrons, which in a tetrahedral field give 2 unpaired electrons (since t2 orbitals are higher energy, electrons occupy them singly first).
- Geometry is tetrahedral → hybridisation sp3.
- μ=2(2+2)=8≈2.84 BM.
- So C matches Q (sp3,μ=2.84 BM).
-
Complex D: [MnBr4]2−
- Br⁻ is a weak field ligand.
- Oxidation state: Mn + 4(−1) = −2 → Mn is +2.
- Mn²⁺: [Ar]3d5. Weak field → high spin, all five d-orbitals singly occupied.
- Tetrahedral geometry → hybridisation sp3.
- Number of unpaired electrons = 5 → μ=5(5+2)=35≈5.92 BM.
- So D matches P (sp3,μ=5.92 BM).
Thus the correct mapping is:
A→R, B→S, C→Q, D→P.
Watch outA common mistake is to forget that Ni(CO)4 has Ni(0) and that CO is a strong field ligand, leading to a diamagnetic tetrahedral complex — not paramagnetic.
TipFor tetrahedral complexes, strong field vs weak field doesn’t change the number of unpaired electrons as much as in octahedral, because the crystal field splitting is smaller. But here, the key is the oxidation state and ligand strength.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A).
ANSWER: A
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- COMEDK 2025Set 2025-M1 markMCQQ.What is the spin only magnetic moment of the metal ion in P and the oxidation number of Sulphur in the oxidised product Z ? (A) μ=0 Oxidation number =+4 (B) μ=5.00BM Oxidation number =0 (C) μ=5.92BM Oxidation number =+2 (D) μ=1.732BM Oxidation number =+6
›Reveal solutionSolution
Pyrolusite (MnO2) fused with KOH and KNO3 gives the manganate(VI) ion in P=K2MnO4. The metal ion Mn6+ is d1, so μ=1(1+2)=1.732 BM. Permanganate then oxidises thiosulphate in neutral medium to sulphate, in which sulphur is +6. The correct option is (D).
Concept
In an oxidising alkaline fusion, Mn(IV) in pyrolusite is raised to Mn(VI), giving the green manganate ion MnO42−. The spin-only magnetic moment depends only on the number of unpaired electrons through μ=n(n+2) BM. Separately, the oxidation number of an atom is read from the formula of the species it ends up in.
Solution
- Identify P. MnO2+2KOH+KNO3→K2MnO4+KNO2+H2O. So P=K2MnO4 and the metal ion is Mn6+.
- Magnetic moment of Mn6+. Configuration [Ar]3d1 gives n=1, so μ=1(1+2)=3=1.732 BM.
- Fate in acid. 3MnO42−+4H+→2MnO4−+MnO2+2H2O (disproportionation), giving permanganate and MnO2.
- Oxidation of thiosulphate. In neutral medium permanganate oxidises S2O32− to sulphate SO42− (Z); sulphur in SO42− has oxidation number +6.
- Match. μ=1.732 BM with sulphur =+6 is option (D).
Watch outOnly Mn6+ (d1) gives μ=1.732 BM; do not use Mn2+ (d5, 5.92 BM) here, because the metal ion asked about is the one in P.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D): μ=1.732 BM and oxidation number of sulphur =+6.
- KCET 2024Set B-21 markMCQQ.Match the following: I. Zn2+ II. Cu2+ III. Ni2+ i. d8 configuration ii. colourless iii. μ=1.73BM I II III (A) i ii iii (B) ii iii i (C) ii i iii (D) i iii ii
›Reveal solutionSolution
Write the dn configuration of each ion, then read off colour (needs a partly-filled d shell) and magnetic moment from the spin-only formula.
Step 1 — Get the d-configurations.
For a transition-metal cation, remove the 4s electrons first, then the 3d electrons.
Ion Atomic no. Neutral atom M2+ configuration Zn2+ 30 [Ar]3d104s2 [Ar]3d10 Cu2+ 29 [Ar]3d104s1 [Ar]3d9 Ni2+ 28 [Ar]3d84s2 [Ar]3d8 Step 2 — Match III: Ni2+ → (i) d8.
Read straight off the table above. This is the most direct match, and it already eliminates options (A) and (C), which both send d8 to Zn2+.
Step 3 — Match I: Zn2+ → (ii) colourless.
Colour in transition-metal ions arises from d–d electronic transitions: an electron absorbs visible light and is promoted from the lower (t2g) to the higher (eg) set. This demands a partially filled d subshell. Zn2+ is d10 — completely full, no vacancy to promote into — so no d–d transition is possible and the ion is colourless.
Step 4 — Match II: Cu2+ → (iii) μ=1.73 BM.
Use the spin-only formula, where n = number of unpaired electrons:
μ=n(n+2) BM
Cu2+ is d9: filling five d orbitals with nine electrons leaves exactly one unpaired electron, so n=1:
μ=1(1+2)=3=1.73 BM ✓
(Cross-check: Ni2+, d8, has n=2⇒μ=8=2.83 BM, and Zn2+, d10, has n=0⇒μ=0 — so 1.73 BM belongs uniquely to Cu2+.)
Step 5 — Assemble.
I→ii,II→iii,III→i
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — ii iii i.
ANSWER: B
- COMEDK 2024Set 2024-A1 markMCQQ.The metallic ions that have almost same spin only magnetic moment are :(i) Co2+(ii) Mn2+(iii) Cr2+(iv) Cr3+ (A) $$ \text {(iii) and(iv) } (B) \text {(i) and(ii) } (C) \text {(i) and(iv) } (D) \text {(i) and(iii) } $$
›Reveal solutionSolution
Counting unpaired electrons: Co2+ (d7) = 3, Mn2+ (d5) = 5, Cr2+ (d4) = 4, Cr3+ (d3) = 3. Co2+ and Cr3+ share n=3, hence the same μ=3.87 BM → (i) and (iv).
Spin-only moment μ=n(n+2) BM, where n = number of unpaired electrons:
- (i) Co2+: 3d7 → 3 unpaired → μ=15=3.87 BM
- (ii) Mn2+: 3d5 → 5 unpaired → μ=35=5.92 BM
- (iii) Cr2+: 3d4 → 4 unpaired → μ=24=4.90 BM
- (iv) Cr3+: 3d3 → 3 unpaired → μ=15=3.87 BM
Co2+ and Cr3+ have equal n=3 and therefore almost the same magnetic moment.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C) — (i) and (iv)
- COMEDK 2024Set 2024-E1 markMCQQ.Based on Valence Bond Theory, match the complexes listed in Column I with the number of unpaired electrons on the central metal ion, given in Column II .tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;} .tg td{border-color:black;border-style:solid;border-width:1px;font-family:Arial, sans-serif;font-size:14px; overflow:hidden;padding:10px 5px;word-break:normal;} .tg th{border-color:black;border-style:solid;border-width:1px;font-family:Arial, sans-serif;font-size:14px; font-weight:normal;overflow:hidden;padding:10px 5px;word-break:normal;} .tg .tg-c3ow{border-color:inherit;text-align:center;vertical-align:top} .tg .tg-7btt{border-color:inherit;font-weight:bold;text-align:center;vertical-align:top} .tg .tg-0pky{border-color:inherit;text-align:left;vertical-align:top} No. Complex ions No. Number of unpaired electrons (A) [FeF6]3− (P) 0 (B) [Fe(CN)6]4− (P) 1 (C) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (R) 5 (D) [Fe(CN)6]3− (S) 4 (A) A=SB=QC=RD=P (B) A=SB=QC=PD=R (C) A=RB=PC=SD=Q (D) A=RB=SC=QD=P
›Reveal solutionSolution
[!TLDR]
Using d-electron counts and strong/weak-field ligands, the unpaired electrons are 5, 0, 4, 1 for A-D, matching option (C).
Concept
In Valence Bond Theory a strong-field ligand (like CN-) forces electron pairing, giving a low-spin inner-orbital complex, while a weak-field ligand (F-, H2O) leaves the electrons unpaired (high spin). Always count the d-electrons on the metal ion first (CBSE/NCERT Class 12, Coordination Compounds).
Solution
- (A) [FeF6]3−: Fe3+ is 3d5; F− is weak-field ⇒ high spin ⇒ 5 unpaired ⇒ R.
- (B) [Fe(CN)6]4−: Fe2+ is 3d6; CN− strong-field ⇒ low spin (t2g6) ⇒ 0 unpaired ⇒ P.
- (C) [Fe(H2O)6]2+: Fe2+ is 3d6; H2O weak-field ⇒ high spin (t2g4eg2) ⇒ 4 unpaired ⇒ S.
- (D) [Fe(CN)6]3−: Fe3+ is 3d5; CN− strong-field ⇒ low spin (t2g5) ⇒ 1 unpaired ⇒ Q.
Hence A=R, B=P, C=S, D=Q.
[!ANSWER]
(C) A=R, B=P, C=S, D=Q
- COMEDK 2024Set 2024-M1 markMCQQ.A d - block metal X(Z=26) forms a compound [X(CN)2(CO)4]+. Calculate its spin magnetic moment value. (A) 2.83 BM (B) 1.73 BM (C) 3.87 BM (D) 5.92 BM
›Reveal solutionSolution
The metal is iron (Z=26); in [Fe(CN)2(CO)4]+ it is Fe3+ (d5), and since CN− and CO are both strong-field ligands, the complex is low-spin with 1 unpaired electron, giving μ=1.73 BM — option (B).
Step-by-step reasoning
-
Identify the metal. Z=26 is iron (Fe).
-
Find the oxidation state.
CN− contributes −1 each (×2), CO is neutral (×4), overall complex charge =+1:
x+2(−1)+4(0)=+1⇒x=+3
So Fe is in the +3 state.
-
Find the d-electron count.
Neutral Fe is [Ar]3d64s2; Fe3+ is [Ar]3d5.
-
Apply the ligand field.
Both CN− and CO are strong-field ligands, favouring a low-spin configuration. For low-spin d5 in an octahedral field: t2g5eg0 → 1 unpaired electron.
-
Compute the magnetic moment.
μ=n(n+2)=1×3=3≈1.73 BM
Watch outForgetting the complex's +1 overall charge would incorrectly give Fe2+ (d6) instead of Fe3+ (d5) — always balance the charge first.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B): 1.73 BM.
-
- COMEDK 2024Set 2024-M1 markMCQQ.The permanganate ion in acid medium acts as an oxidant and gets converted to its lower oxidation state. What would be the spin only magnetic moment of such reduced manganese ion? (A) 2.84 BM (B) 4.90 BM (C) 3.87 BM (D) 5.92 BM
›Reveal solutionSolution
In acidic medium, permanganate (MnO4−) is reduced to Mn2+, which has five unpaired 3d electrons; the spin-only magnetic moment is 5(5+2)=35≈5.92 BM, so the correct option is (D).
The key concept here is the relationship between oxidation state, electronic configuration, and magnetic moment. The permanganate ion (MnO4−) contains manganese in the +7 oxidation state. In acidic medium, it is a powerful oxidant and gets reduced to a lower oxidation state — specifically, to the manganous ion (Mn2+). The question asks for the spin-only magnetic moment of this reduced ion. The spin-only formula is μ=n(n+2) BM, where n is the number of unpaired electrons. So we need to find n for Mn2+.
-
Determine the electronic configuration of the reduced manganese ion.
Manganese (atomic number 25) has the ground-state configuration [Ar]3d54s2.
In the Mn2+ ion, two electrons are removed — first from the 4s orbital (as is standard for transition metals), giving [Ar]3d5.
-
Find the number of unpaired electrons in Mn2+.
The 3d subshell has five orbitals. For a d5 configuration, Hund’s rule tells us that electrons occupy all five orbitals singly with parallel spins before any pairing occurs. Thus, all five 3d electrons are unpaired.
So n=5.
-
Apply the spin-only magnetic moment formula.
The formula is:
μ=n(n+2) BM
Substituting n=5:
μ=5×7=35 BM
Numerically, 35≈5.916, which rounds to 5.92 BM.
TipA common shortcut: for d5 (high-spin), the magnetic moment is always 35≈5.92 BM. This is a classic value to remember for Mn2+ and Fe3+.
Watch outA frequent mistake is to forget that in acidic medium, permanganate reduces all the way to Mn2+, not to Mn4+ or Mn6+. In neutral/alkaline medium, the product is MnO2 (Mn4+, n=3, μ≈3.87 BM), which is a distractor here.
- Match with the options. The calculated value 5.92 BM corresponds exactly to option (D).
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D).
ANSWER: D
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