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Worked Examples · Example 10

Q.Show that the function f:N→Nf: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}, given by f(1)=f(2)=1f(1) = f(2) = 1 and f(x)=x−1f(x) = x - 1, for every x>2x > 2, is onto but not one-one.

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The function is not one-one because f(1)=f(2)=1f(1)=f(2)=1 (two inputs map to the same output), but it is onto because every natural number nn has a preimage: n=1n=1 is hit by 11 and 22, and for n≥2n \ge 2, f(n+1)=nf(n+1)=n.


Concept and Intuition

A function f:A→Bf: A \to B is one-one (injective) if different inputs always give different outputs. It is onto (surjective) if every element of the codomain BB is actually reached by some input from AA.

Here, the domain and codomain are both N={1,2,3,… }\mathbb{N} = \{1,2,3,\dots\}. The function is defined piecewise:

  • For x=1x = 1 and x=2x = 2, the output is 11.
  • For every x>2x > 2, the output is x−1x-1.

The key observation: the first two values collide at 11, so injectivity fails immediately. But surjectivity? For any target n∈Nn \in \mathbb{N}, we need to find some x∈Nx \in \mathbb{N} such that f(x)=nf(x)=n. The rule f(x)=x−1f(x)=x-1 for x>2x>2 gives us a natural way to hit numbers 2,3,4,…2,3,4,\dots — just take x=n+1x=n+1. And n=1n=1 is already covered by x=1x=1 or x=2x=2. So every natural number is hit.


Step-by-Step Reasoning

1. Check one-one (injectivity).

A function is one-one if f(a)=f(b)f(a)=f(b) implies a=ba=b. Here, f(1)=1f(1)=1 and f(2)=1f(2)=1. So f(1)=f(2)f(1)=f(2) but 1≠21 \neq 2. That is a direct counterexample.

Hence ff is not one-one.

Watch out

A common mistake is to only check the x>2x>2 part and conclude the function is one-one because x−1x-1 is strictly increasing. But the definition at x=1,2x=1,2 breaks injectivity — always check the whole domain.

2. Check onto (surjectivity).

We need to show: for every n∈Nn \in \mathbb{N}, there exists some x∈Nx \in \mathbb{N} such that f(x)=nf(x)=n.

  • Case n=1n=1: Choose x=1x=1 (or x=2x=2). Then f(1)=1f(1)=1, so 11 is in the range. …

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