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Exercise 1.2 · Q10

Q.Let A=R−{3}A = \mathbf{R} - \{3\} and B=R−{1}B = \mathbf{R} - \{1\}. Consider the function f:A→Bf: A \rightarrow B defined by f(x)=x−2x−3f(x) = \frac{x-2}{x-3}. Is ff one-one and onto? Justify your answer.

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The function f(x)=x−2x−3f(x) = \frac{x-2}{x-3} is both one-one and onto. It is a bijection from A=R−{3}A = \mathbb{R} - \{3\} to B=R−{1}B = \mathbb{R} - \{1\}, with the inverse f−1(y)=3y−2y−1f^{-1}(y) = \frac{3y-2}{y-1}.

Why a Bijection Proof Works

When a function is defined by a rational expression like x−2x−3\frac{x-2}{x-3}, the natural instinct is to check one-one by setting f(x1)=f(x2)f(x_1) = f(x_2) and solving, and check onto by solving f(x)=yf(x) = y for xx in terms of yy. Both steps are algebraic, but the real insight is this: if you can solve f(x)=yf(x) = y uniquely for every yy in the codomain, you have simultaneously proven one-one and onto. That single equation gives you the inverse function, and an invertible function is exactly a bijection.

The domain excludes x=3x = 3 (division by zero), and the codomain excludes y=1y = 1 because the horizontal asymptote of ff is y=1y = 1 — the function never actually reaches that value. So the mapping is perfectly tailored: ff sends every real number except 33 to every real number except 11, exactly once each.


Step-by-Step Solution

1. Check one-one (injectivity).

Assume f(x1)=f(x2)f(x_1) = f(x_2) for x1,x2∈Ax_1, x_2 \in A. Then:

x1−2x1−3=x2−2x2−3\frac{x_1 - 2}{x_1 - 3} = \frac{x_2 - 2}{x_2 - 3}

Cross-multiply (valid since denominators are non-zero in AA):

(x1−2)(x2−3)=(x2−2)(x1−3)(x_1 - 2)(x_2 - 3) = (x_2 - 2)(x_1 - 3)

Expand both sides:

x1x2−3x1−2x2+6=x1x2−3x2−2x1+6x_1 x_2 - 3x_1 - 2x_2 + 6 = x_1 x_2 - 3x_2 - 2x_1 + 6

Cancel x1x2x_1 x_2 and 66 from both sides:

−3x1−2x2=−3x2−2x1-3x_1 - 2x_2 = -3x_2 - 2x_1

Bring terms together:

−3x1+2x1=−3x2+2x2⇒−x1=−x2-3x_1 + 2x_1 = -3x_2 + 2x_2 \quad \Rightarrow \quad -x_1 = -x_2

So x1=x2x_1 = x_2. Hence ff is one-one.

Tip

Instead of expanding fully, notice that x−2x−3=1+1x−3\frac{x-2}{x-3} = 1 + \frac{1}{x-3}. Then f(x1)=f(x2)f(x_1) = f(x_2) gives 1+1x1−3=1+1x2−31 + \frac{1}{x_1-3} = 1 + \frac{1}{x_2-3}, so 1x1−3=1x2−3\frac{1}{x_1-3} = \frac{1}{x_2-3}, implying x1=x2x_1 = x_2 immediately. This shortcut saves time in exams.

2. Check onto (surjectivity).

We need to show: for every y∈B=R−{1}y \in B = \mathbb{R} - \{1\}, there exists some x∈A=R−{3}x \in A = \mathbb{R} - \{3\} such that f(x)=yf(x) = y.

Set y=x−2x−3y = \frac{x-2}{x-3} and solve for xx:

y(x−3)=x−2y(x - 3) = x - 2

yx−3y=x−2yx - 3y = x - 2

Bring xx terms together:

yx−x=3y−2yx - x = 3y - 2

x(y−1)=3y−2x(y - 1) = 3y - 2 …

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