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Q.If the coefficients of x9x^9, x10x^{10}, x11x^{11} in the expansion of (1+x)n(1 + x)^n are in A.P., then prove that n2−41n+398=0n^2 - 41n + 398 = 0.

Telangana TsbieTelangana Board of Intermediate Education 2023Subjective· 7mImportance★★★★★
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Applying 2 nC10=nC9+nC112\,{}^{n}C_{10} = {}^{n}C_9 + {}^{n}C_{11} and using coefficient ratios yields n2−41n+398=0n^2 - 41n + 398 = 0.

In (1+x)n(1+x)^n the coefficients of x9,x10,x11x^9, x^{10}, x^{11} are nC9,nC10,nC11{}^{n}C_9, {}^{n}C_{10}, {}^{n}C_{11}. If they are in A.P.,

2 nC10=nC9+nC112\,{}^{n}C_{10} = {}^{n}C_9 + {}^{n}C_{11}.

Divide by nC10{}^{n}C_{10} and use nCr−1nCr=rn−r+1\dfrac{{}^{n}C_{r-1}}{{}^{n}C_r} = \dfrac{r}{n-r+1}:

nC9nC10=10n−9,nC11nC10=n−1011\dfrac{{}^{n}C_9}{{}^{n}C_{10}} = \dfrac{10}{n-9}, \qquad \dfrac{{}^{n}C_{11}}{{}^{n}C_{10}} = \dfrac{n-10}{11}.

So

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