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Question of 64

Q.If the coefficients of 4 consecutive terms in the expansion of (1+x)n(1 + x)^n are a1,a2,a3,a4a_1, a_2, a_3, a_4 respectively, then show that a1a1+a2+a3a3+a4=2a2a2+a3\frac{a_1}{a_1 + a_2} + \frac{a_3}{a_3 + a_4} = \frac{2a_2}{a_2 + a_3}.

Telangana TsbieTelangana Board of Intermediate Education 2025Subjective· 7mImportance★★★★★
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Using (nr)+(nr+1)=(n+1r+1)\binom{n}{r}+\binom{n}{r+1}=\binom{n+1}{r+1}, each fraction aiai+ai+1\dfrac{a_i}{a_i+a_{i+1}} simplifies to a linear expression, and LHS == RHS.

Let the four consecutive coefficients be

a1=(nr), a2=(nr+1), a3=(nr+2), a4=(nr+3).a_1=\binom{n}{r},\ a_2=\binom{n}{r+1},\ a_3=\binom{n}{r+2},\ a_4=\binom{n}{r+3}.

Compute the building block:

a1a1+a2=(nr)(nr)+(nr+1)=(nr)(n+1r+1).\dfrac{a_1}{a_1+a_2}=\dfrac{\binom{n}{r}}{\binom{n}{r}+\binom{n}{r+1}}=\dfrac{\binom{n}{r}}{\binom{n+1}{r+1}}.

Now (nr)(n+1r+1)=n!/[r!(n−r)!](n+1)!/[(r+1)!(n−r)!]=r+1n+1.\dfrac{\binom{n}{r}}{\binom{n+1}{r+1}}=\dfrac{n!/[r!(n-r)!]}{(n+1)!/[(r+1)!(n-r)!]}=\dfrac{r+1}{n+1}.

By the same computation with r→r+1r\to r+1 and r→r+2r\to r+2:

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