Q.By using the properties of definite integrals, evaluate the integral ∫0ax+a−xxdx
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Definite Integral Symmetry: The Shortcut That Saves You Work
Asked to find the area under f(x)=x3 from x=−2 to x=2? You could integrate directly — but there's a much faster way if you notice the symmetry of the graph.
The Intuition: What Does "Symmetry" Mean Here?
A function can be symmetric about the y-axis (like x2 or cosx) or about the origin (like x3 or sinx). When you integrate over a symmetric interval — from −a to a — these symmetries create a predictable cancellation or doubling.
Even functions (symmetric about the y-axis): f(−x)=f(x) — think x2, x4, cosx, ∣x∣. The left side mirrors the right, so the area from −a to 0 equals the area from 0 to a. The total is double the area on one side.
Odd functions (symmetric about the origin): f(−x)=−f(x) — think x3, x5, sinx, tanx. The left side is the negative mirror of the right, so every positive area on the right is cancelled by an equal negative area on the left. The total is zero.
This only works when the limits are symmetric about zero — from −a to a. For [0,a] or [1,3], symmetry doesn't help directly.
The Precise Statement
Let f be continuous on [−a,a].
- If f is even (f(−x)=f(x)), then ∫−aaf(x)dx=2∫0af(x)dx
- If f is odd (f(−x)=−f(x)), then ∫−aaf(x)dx=0
∫−aaf(x)dx={2∫0af(x)dx0if f is evenif f is odd
Why Does This Work? (A Quick Proof)
Split at zero:
∫−aaf(x)dx=∫−a0f(x)dx+∫0af(x)dx
For the first term substitute u=−x (dx=−du; x=−a→u=a, x=0→u=0):
∫−a0f(x)dx=∫0af(−u)du
Now use symmetry:
- If f is even, f(−u)=f(u), so this becomes ∫0af(u)du; adding the second term gives 2∫0af(x)dx.
- If f is odd, f(−u)=−f(u), so this becomes −∫0af(u)du; adding the second term gives 0.
Common Mistakes to Avoid
Don't assume symmetry without checking. A "balanced"-looking function need not be even or odd — e.g. f(x)=x2+x is neither, so these formulas don't apply. Always verify f(−x)=f(x) or f(−x)=−f(x) for all x.
The interval must be [−a,a]. If the limits are [−2,3], symmetry doesn't apply directly — split the integral or shift variables.
Examples to Cement the Idea
Example 1: ∫−33x4dx — x4 is even, so
∫−33x4dx=2∫03x4dx=2[5x5]03=2⋅5243=5486 …
The key idea is to use the symmetry property of definite integrals: ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx.
Let I=∫0ax+a−xxdx.
Replace x by a−x. Since dx becomes −dx but the limits swap, we have:
I=∫0aa−x+xa−xdx.
Now add the two expressions for I: …
Using the symmetry property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx, we add the original integral to its transformed version, simplify the sum to a, and obtain the value 2a.
The key insight here is that the integrand has a beautiful symmetry when you replace x with a−x. The denominator x+a−x simply swaps its two terms, while the numerator x becomes a−x. This kind of structure is tailor-made for the property:
∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx
This holds for any function f that is integrable on [0,a]. It works because as x runs from 0 to a, the quantity a−x runs from a down to 0 — a perfect reversal. The area under the curve doesn't change.
Let's apply it.
- Define the integral Let
I=∫0ax+a−xxdx.
- Apply the substitution x→a−x Using the property above, replace x by a−x everywhere in the integrand. The limits stay the same (0 and a), and dx remains dx:
I=∫0aa−x+xa−xdx.
Notice the denominator is the same as before — just the two terms swapped — so it's unchanged. The numerator is now a−x.
- Add the two expressions for I We now have two different-looking integrals that are actually equal. Add them:
I+I=∫0ax+a−xxdx+∫0aa−x+xa−xdx.
Since the denominators are identical, we can combine the integrands over a single integral:
2I=∫0ax+a−xx+a−xdx.
- Simplify …
Method: The general f+f(a−x)f complementary trick ⇒2a
For ∫0af(x)+f(a−x)f(x)dx, reflection produces the complementary fraction; the two always add to 1, giving half the interval length regardless of f.
Steps
Step 1: Reflect with x→a−x.
I=∫0af(a−x)+f(x)f(a−x)dx.
Step 2: Add — the denominators are identical. …
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Trying to integrate x+a−xx by rationalising directly.
Why it's wrong: direct manipulation is messy and unnecessary — the f+f(a−x)f pattern gives 2a by reflection. Correct approach: reflect x→a−x and add.
Mistake 2: Doubting the answer because it has no x in it. …
Showing the 12 most recent of 22 on this concept.
- TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-14-AN1 markMCQQ.∫369−x+xxdx= (A) 21 (B) 23 (C) 2 (D) 1
›Reveal solutionSolution
This integral is a classic symmetric-invariance problem: using the substitution x→9−x shows the integrand and its complement sum to 1, so the integral over [3,6] is half the interval length, giving 23.
Concept & Intuition
When you see an integral of the form ∫abf(x)+f(a+b−x)f(x)dx, there’s a beautiful trick: the integrand and its “mirror image” add to 1. Here a=3, b=6, so a+b=9. The denominator is 9−x+x, and the numerator is x. If we replace x by 9−x, the numerator becomes 9−x and the denominator stays the same (just swapped order). So the original integrand I(x) and I(9−x) sum to 1. Integrating over a symmetric interval around the midpoint x=4.5 then gives half the length of the interval.
Step-by-step solution
- Define the integral Let
I=∫369−x+xxdx.
- Apply the substitution x→9−u Set u=9−x. Then dx=−du, and when x=3, u=6; when x=6, u=3. So
I=∫63u+9−u9−u(−du)=∫36u+9−u9−udu.
Since u is a dummy variable, rename it x:
I=∫36x+9−x9−xdx.
- Add the two expressions for I We now have two representations:
I=∫369−x+xxdxandI=∫36x+9−x9−xdx.
Adding them:
2I=∫36(9−x+xx+x+9−x9−x)dx.… - TG EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-19-FN1 markMCQQ.∫02af(x)dx= (A) 2∫0af(x)dx (B) ∫0a(f(x)+f(x+a))dx (C) 0 (D) ∫02af(2a+x)dx
›Reveal solutionSolution
The key idea is to split the integral at x=a and use a substitution x=a+t to relate the two halves. The correct answer is ∫02af(x)dx=∫0a(f(x)+f(x+a))dx, which is option (B).
The question asks for a general property of definite integrals over an interval of length 2a. This is a standard result often used in problems involving periodic or symmetric functions, but it holds for any integrable function f. The trick is to break the interval into two equal halves and then shift the second half back to start at 0.
- Split the integral at the midpoint. Write the integral from 0 to 2a as the sum of two integrals:
∫02af(x)dx=∫0af(x)dx+∫a2af(x)dx.
This is always valid because the limits are contiguous.
- Change variable in the second integral. In ∫a2af(x)dx, let x=a+t. Then dx=dt, and when x=a, t=0; when x=2a, t=a. So
∫a2af(x)dx=∫0af(a+t)dt.
Since the variable of integration is dummy, we can rename t back to x:
∫a2af(x)dx=∫0af(x+a)dx.
- Combine the two pieces. Putting it together:
∫02af(x)dx=∫0af(x)dx+∫0af(x+a)dx=∫0a(f(x)+f(x+a))dx.
This matches option (B) exactly. …
- TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-09-FN1 markMCQQ.Let f:[0,1]→R be a function defined as f(x)+f(1−x)=1. Then ∫01f(x)dx= (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 21 (D) 41
›Reveal solutionSolution
The functional equation f(x)+f(1−x)=1 forces the average value of f over [0,1] to be 21, so the integral is 21. The correct option is (C).
Concept & Intuition
The given condition f(x)+f(1−x)=1 is a symmetry relation: the value at x and the value at its mirror point 1−x always sum to 1. This means the graph of f is symmetric about the point (21,21). If you average f over the whole interval, the contributions from x and 1−x together always give 1, so the overall average must be 21. The integral is just the average value times the length of the interval.
- Set up the integral and use the substitution x→1−x. Let I=∫01f(x)dx. Substitute u=1−x, so du=−dx and when x=0, u=1; when x=1, u=0. Then
I=∫01f(x)dx=∫10f(1−u)(−du)=∫01f(1−u)du.
Renaming the dummy variable back to x, we have
I=∫01f(1−x)dx.
- Add the two expressions for I. We now have two representations:
I=∫01f(x)dxandI=∫01f(1−x)dx.
Adding them gives
2I=∫01[f(x)+f(1−x)]dx.
- Use the given functional equation. The condition f(x)+f(1−x)=1 holds for every x∈[0,1]. Therefore 2I=∫011dx=[x]01=1.…
- TG EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-20-AN1 markMCQQ.If ∫−aaf(x)dx=∫0af(x)dx+∫0ag(x)dx then g(x)= (A) −f(x) (B) f(x) (C) f(−x) (D) f(x)+f(−x)
›Reveal solutionSolution
The property of definite integrals over symmetric limits splits into two parts: one from 0 to a of f(x), and another from 0 to a of f(−x). So g(x)=f(−x), which is option (C).
The key idea here is how an integral over a symmetric interval [−a,a] can be broken into two integrals from 0 to a — one using the original function and the other using a reflected version. This is a standard trick in definite integration, especially when dealing with even and odd functions, but it works for any function.
Let’s see why this works.
- Split the original integral at zero. For any function f, we can write:
∫−aaf(x)dx=∫−a0f(x)dx+∫0af(x)dx
- Change variable in the first integral. Let x=−t. Then dx=−dt, and when x=−a, t=a; when x=0, t=0. So:
∫−a0f(x)dx=∫a0f(−t)(−dt)=∫0af(−t)dt
The limits flip and the minus signs cancel. Since the variable of integration is dummy, we can rename t back to x:
∫−a0f(x)dx=∫0af(−x)dx
- Combine the two pieces. Substituting back:
∫−aaf(x)dx=∫0af(−x)dx+∫0af(x)dx
- Compare with the given form. The problem states: ∫−aaf(x)dx=∫0af(x)dx+∫0ag(x)dx …
- TG EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-06-FN1 markMCQQ.
[!FORMULA] ∫0πxf(sinx)dx=
(A) 2π∫0π/4f(sinx)dx (B) π∫0π/4f(sinx)dx (C) 2π∫0π/2f(sinx)dx (D) π∫0π/2f(sinx)dx›Reveal solutionSolution
Use the property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx with a=π to rewrite the integral, then add the two forms. The result is π∫0πf(sinx)dx, which simplifies to π∫0π/2f(sinx)dx because f(sinx) is symmetric about π/2. The correct option is (D).
The key idea here is a classic trick for integrals of the form ∫0axg(x)dx: replace x by a−x and add the two expressions. This often cancels the x factor and leaves a simpler integral.
Let I=∫0πxf(sinx)dx. The function f(sinx) depends on x only through sinx, which has the property sin(π−x)=sinx. That symmetry is what we will exploit.
- Apply the substitution x→π−x. Let t=π−x. Then dx=−dt, and when x=0, t=π; when x=π, t=0. So
I=∫0πxf(sinx)dx=∫π0(π−t)f(sin(π−t))(−dt)=∫0π(π−t)f(sint)dt.
Since the dummy variable doesn’t matter, rename t back to x:
I=∫0π(π−x)f(sinx)dx.
- Add the two expressions for I. We now have two forms:
I=∫0πxf(sinx)dxandI=∫0π(π−x)f(sinx)dx.
Adding them:
2I=∫0π[x+(π−x)]f(sinx)dx=∫0ππf(sinx)dx.
Hence
I=2π∫0πf(sinx)dx.
- Simplify the limits using symmetry. …
- TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-13-AN1 markMCQQ.∫02x3(2−x)4dx= (A) 105128 (B) 3516 (C) 105256 (D) 3532
›Reveal solutionSolution
Substitute u=2−x and expand; the integral evaluates to 3532.
Setup. Let u=2−x, so x=2−u and dx=−du. The limits map x:0→2 into u:2→0:
∫02x3(2−x)4dx=∫02(2−u)3u4du.
Expand (2−u)3=8−12u+6u2−u3, so the integrand becomes
8u4−12u5+6u6−u7.
Integrate term-by-term from 0 to 2:
[58u5−2u6+76u7−81u8]02.
At u=2: 58(32)−2(64)+76(128)−81(256)=5256−128+7768−32. …
- TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-14-FN1 markMCQQ.∫−11x∣x∣dx= (A) 1 (B) 21 (C) 0 (D) 32
›Reveal solutionSolution
The integral of an odd function over a symmetric interval is zero. Since x∣x∣ is odd, the definite integral from −1 to 1 is 0.
The key idea here is symmetry. When you integrate an odd function over an interval symmetric about zero, the positive and negative contributions cancel perfectly. The function f(x)=x∣x∣ is odd because f(−x)=(−x)∣−x∣=−x∣x∣=−f(x). So instead of doing any messy piecewise integration, we can immediately see the result.
Let’s verify this step by step to be thorough.
-
Understand the function
The absolute value makes the function piecewise:
- For x≥0, ∣x∣=x, so x∣x∣=x⋅x=x2.
- For x<0, ∣x∣=−x, so x∣x∣=x⋅(−x)=−x2. So f(x)={−x2,x2,x<0x≥0. This confirms it’s odd: the graph for negative x is the mirror image (with opposite sign) of the graph for positive x.
-
Split the integral at the symmetry point
Since the function changes definition at x=0, we write:
∫−11x∣x∣dx=∫−10(−x2)dx+∫01x2dx.
- Evaluate each piece
- For the left part: ∫−10−x2dx=−[3x3]−10=−(0−3(−1)3)=−(0+31)=−31. …
-
- TG EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-04-FN1 markMCQQ.
[!FORMULA] ∫−111+x2log(1+x)dx=∫011+x2log(1+x)dx+∫01f(x)dx then f(x)=
(A) 1+x2log(1+x) (B) −1+x2log(1+x) (C) 1+x2log(1−x) (D) 0›Reveal solutionSolution
The key idea is to split the integral at 0 and then use the substitution x→−x on the negative half to rewrite it as an integral from 0 to 1; the function f(x) turns out to be 1+x2log(1−x), which is option (C).
The problem gives you a split of the original integral from −1 to 1 into two parts: one from −1 to 0 and one from 0 to 1. The second part is already written as ∫011+x2log(1+x)dx. The first part, ∫−101+x2log(1+x)dx, is what needs to be transformed into ∫01f(x)dx. So we need to find f(x) such that
∫−101+x2log(1+x)dx=∫01f(x)dx.
The natural way to convert an integral over a negative interval to one over a positive interval is a change of variable that flips the limits. Let’s work through it.
- Set up the substitution. On the interval [−1,0], let x=−t. Then when x=−1, t=1; when x=0, t=0. Also dx=−dt. The integral becomes
∫−101+x2log(1+x)dx=∫101+t2log(1−t)(−dt)=∫011+t2log(1−t)dt.
The minus sign from dx=−dt flips the limits back to 0 to 1, and x2=t2 so the denominator is unchanged.
- Identify f(x). The variable of integration is a dummy, so rename t back to x. We have
∫−101+x2log(1+x)dx=∫011+x2log(1−x)dx.
Therefore, the function f(x) that makes the original equation hold is
f(x)=1+x2log(1−x). …
- TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-11-FN1 markMCQQ.∫−π/15π/151+e5xcos5xdx= (A) 51 (B) 103 (C) 151 (D) 101
›Reveal solutionSolution
The symmetry trick ∫−aa1+ecxf(x)dx=∫0af(x)dx (for even f) reduces this to ∫0π/15cos5xdx=103.
Use the king-property symmetry. Let
I=∫−π/15π/151+e5xcos5xdx.
Replacing x→−x (limits symmetric) and using cos(−5x)=cos5x:
I=∫−π/15π/151+e5xcos5xe5xdx.
Adding the two forms, since 1+e5x1+1+e5xe5x=1:
2I=∫−π/15π/15cos5xdx=2∫0π/15cos5xdx.
Evaluate. …
- TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-10-AN1 markMCQQ.253∫025π∣cosx−cos3x∣dx= (A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 0
›Reveal solutionSolution
∣cosx−cos3x∣=∣cosx∣∣sinx∣, whose integral over one period π is 34; over 25π it is 3100, and 253⋅3100=4.
Simplifying the integrand.
cosx−cos3x=cosx(1−cos2x)=cosxsin2x.
Since sin2x≥0,
∣cosx−cos3x∣=∣cosx∣sin2x=∣cosx∣∣sinx∣.
Periodicity.
Both ∣cosx∣ and ∣sinx∣ have period π, so the integrand has period π. The interval [0,25π] contains exactly 25 periods.
Integral over one period [0,π].
On [0,π], sinx≥0. Split where cosx changes sign at 2π:
∫0π∣cosx∣sinxdx=∫0π/2cosxsinxdx+∫π/2π−cosxsinxdx. …
- TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-10-FN1 markMCQQ.∫−π/8π/81+e4xsin4(4x)dx= (A) 1283π (B) 2563π (C) 643π (D) 323π
›Reveal solutionSolution
The 1+e4x1 symmetry trick reduces the integral to ∫0π/8sin4(4x)dx=643π.
Apply the symmetric-interval identity. For an even function g,
∫−aa1+e4xg(x)dx=∫0ag(x)dx.
This follows from adding I to its x→−x image: 1+e4x1+1+e−4x1=1. Here g(x)=sin4(4x) is even and a=8π, so
I=∫0π/8sin4(4x)dx.
Evaluate. Substitute u=4x, du=4dx; limits 0→π/2: …
- TG EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-19-AN1 markMCQQ.∫03[sin(3πx)−cos(3πx)]dx= (A) π−6 (B) 0 (C) π−3 (D) π6
›Reveal solutionSolution
Integrating over one full period-related span [0,3]: the sin term contributes π6 and the cos term contributes 0, so the integral is π6 (option D).
∫03[sin(3πx)−cos(3πx)]dx.
Sine part:
∫03sin(3πx)dx=[−π3cos(3πx)]03=−π3(cosπ−cos0)=−π3(−1−1)=π6.
Cosine part: …
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