Q.Choose the correct answer: The value of $\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\log\left(\frac{4+3\sin x}{4+3\cos x}\right)dx$ is (A) 2 (B) $\frac{3}{4}$ (C) 0 (D) $-2$

Showing the 12 most recent of 22 on this concept.

1. TG EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-19-AN1 markMCQ
   Q.$\int_{0}^{3} \left[ \sin\left(\frac{\pi}{3}x\right) - \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{3}x\right) \right] dx =$ (A) $\dfrac{-6}{\pi}$ (B) $0$ (C) $\dfrac{-3}{\pi}$ (D) $\dfrac{6}{\pi}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   Integrating over one full period-related span $[0,3]$: the $\sin$ term contributes $\tfrac6\pi$ and the $\cos$ term contributes $0$, so the integral is $\tfrac6\pi$ (option D).

   $\int_0^3\left[\sin\!\left(\tfrac{\pi}{3}x\right)-\cos\!\left(\tfrac{\pi}{3}x\right)\right]dx.$

   Sine part:

   $\int_0^3\sin\!\left(\tfrac{\pi}{3}x\right)dx=\left[-\dfrac{3}{\pi}\cos\!\left(\tfrac{\pi}{3}x\right)\right]_0^3=-\dfrac{3}{\pi}\big(\cos\pi-\cos0\big)=-\dfrac3\pi(-1-1)=\dfrac6\pi.$

   Cosine part: …

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2. TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-14-FN1 markMCQ
   Q.$\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin^2 x \cos^2 x (\sin x + \cos x) dx =$ (A) $\dfrac{2}{3}$ (B) $\dfrac{3}{10}$ (C) $\dfrac{4}{15}$ (D) $\dfrac{5}{18}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   The integrand is an odd function over a symmetric interval, so the integral evaluates to zero; none of the given positive options match, but the correct answer is 0, which is not listed — the intended answer is (C) only if the problem had a misprint, but strictly the integral is zero.

   The key insight is symmetry. When integrating over $[-\pi/2, \pi/2]$, check if the function is odd or even. An odd function integrated over a symmetric interval always gives zero. Here, $\sin^2 x \cos^2 x$ is even, but $(\sin x + \cos x)$ is a sum of an odd and an even part. The product of an even function with an odd function is odd, and that part integrates to zero. The even part (from $\cos x$) also integrates to zero because of the specific powers? Let’s check carefully.

   1. Separate the integrand:

   $\sin^2 x \cos^2 x (\sin x + \cos x) = \sin^2 x \cos^2 x \sin x + \sin^2 x \cos^2 x \cos x.$

   2. Analyze parity:

      • $\sin^2 x \cos^2 x$ is even because $\sin^2 x$ and $\cos^2 x$ are both even.
      • $\sin x$ is odd, so $\sin^2 x \cos^2 x \cdot \sin x$ is odd.
      • $\cos x$ is even, so $\sin^2 x \cos^2 x \cdot \cos x$ is even.

   3. Integrate the odd part:

      For any odd function $f(x)$, $\int_{-a}^{a} f(x)\,dx = 0$.

      Thus,

   $\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \sin^2 x \cos^2 x \sin x \, dx = 0.$

   4. Integrate the even part: The even part is $\sin^2 x \cos^3 x$. Over a symmetric interval, we can double the integral from $0$ to $\pi/2$: $\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \sin^2 x \cos^3 x \, dx = 2 \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin^2 x \cos^3 x \, dx.$ …

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3. TG EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-06-FN1 markMCQ
   Q.

   [!FORMULA] $\int_{0}^{\pi} x f(\sin x) dx =$

   (A) $2\pi \int_{0}^{\pi/4} f(\sin x) dx$ (B) $\pi \int_{0}^{\pi/4} f(\sin x) dx$ (C) $2\pi \int_{0}^{\pi/2} f(\sin x) dx$ (D) $\pi \int_{0}^{\pi/2} f(\sin x) dx$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   Use the property $\int_0^a f(x)\,dx = \int_0^a f(a-x)\,dx$ with $a=\pi$ to rewrite the integral, then add the two forms. The result is $\pi \int_0^{\pi} f(\sin x)\,dx$, which simplifies to $\pi \int_0^{\pi/2} f(\sin x)\,dx$ because $f(\sin x)$ is symmetric about $\pi/2$. The correct option is (D).

   The key idea here is a classic trick for integrals of the form $\int_0^a x\,g(x)\,dx$: replace $x$ by $a-x$ and add the two expressions. This often cancels the $x$ factor and leaves a simpler integral.

   Let $I = \int_{0}^{\pi} x \, f(\sin x) \, dx$. The function $f(\sin x)$ depends on $x$ only through $\sin x$, which has the property $\sin(\pi - x) = \sin x$. That symmetry is what we will exploit.

   1. Apply the substitution $x \to \pi - x$. Let $t = \pi - x$. Then $dx = -dt$, and when $x=0$, $t=\pi$; when $x=\pi$, $t=0$. So

   $I = \int_{0}^{\pi} x \, f(\sin x) \, dx = \int_{\pi}^{0} (\pi - t) \, f(\sin(\pi - t)) \, (-dt) = \int_{0}^{\pi} (\pi - t) \, f(\sin t) \, dt.$

   Since the dummy variable doesn’t matter, rename $t$ back to $x$:

   $I = \int_{0}^{\pi} (\pi - x) \, f(\sin x) \, dx.$

   2. Add the two expressions for $I$. We now have two forms:

   $I = \int_{0}^{\pi} x \, f(\sin x) \, dx \quad \text{and} \quad I = \int_{0}^{\pi} (\pi - x) \, f(\sin x) \, dx.$

   Adding them:

   $2I = \int_{0}^{\pi} \bigl[ x + (\pi - x) \bigr] f(\sin x) \, dx = \int_{0}^{\pi} \pi \, f(\sin x) \, dx.$

   Hence

   $I = \frac{\pi}{2} \int_{0}^{\pi} f(\sin x) \, dx.$

   3. Simplify the limits using symmetry. …

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4. TG EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-04-FN1 markMCQ
   Q.

   [!FORMULA] $\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{\log(1+x)}{1+x^2} dx = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\log(1+x)}{1+x^2} dx + \int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx \text{ then } f(x) =$

   (A) $\frac{\log(1+x)}{1+x^2}$ (B) $-\frac{\log(1+x)}{1+x^2}$ (C) $\frac{\log(1-x)}{1+x^2}$ (D) $0$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   The key idea is to split the integral at $0$ and then use the substitution $x \to -x$ on the negative half to rewrite it as an integral from $0$ to $1$; the function $f(x)$ turns out to be $\frac{\log(1-x)}{1+x^2}$, which is option (C).

   The problem gives you a split of the original integral from $-1$ to $1$ into two parts: one from $-1$ to $0$ and one from $0$ to $1$. The second part is already written as $\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1+x)}{1+x^2} dx$. The first part, $\int_{-1}^0 \frac{\log(1+x)}{1+x^2} dx$, is what needs to be transformed into $\int_0^1 f(x) dx$. So we need to find $f(x)$ such that

   $\int_{-1}^0 \frac{\log(1+x)}{1+x^2} dx = \int_0^1 f(x) dx.$

   The natural way to convert an integral over a negative interval to one over a positive interval is a change of variable that flips the limits. Let’s work through it.

   1. Set up the substitution. On the interval $[-1, 0]$, let $x = -t$. Then when $x = -1$, $t = 1$; when $x = 0$, $t = 0$. Also $dx = -dt$. The integral becomes

   $\int_{-1}^0 \frac{\log(1+x)}{1+x^2} dx = \int_{1}^{0} \frac{\log(1 - t)}{1 + t^2} (-dt) = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\log(1 - t)}{1 + t^2} dt.$

   The minus sign from $dx = -dt$ flips the limits back to $0$ to $1$, and $x^2 = t^2$ so the denominator is unchanged.

   2. Identify $f(x)$. The variable of integration is a dummy, so rename $t$ back to $x$. We have

   $\int_{-1}^0 \frac{\log(1+x)}{1+x^2} dx = \int_0^1 \frac{\log(1 - x)}{1 + x^2} dx.$

   Therefore, the function $f(x)$ that makes the original equation hold is

   $f(x) = \frac{\log(1 - x)}{1 + x^2}.$ …

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5. TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-10-FN1 markMCQ
   Q.$\int_{-\pi/8}^{\pi/8} \frac{\sin^4(4x)}{1+e^{4x}} \, dx =$ (A) $\frac{3\pi}{128}$ (B) $\frac{3\pi}{256}$ (C) $\frac{3\pi}{64}$ (D) $\frac{3\pi}{32}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   The $\dfrac{1}{1+e^{4x}}$ symmetry trick reduces the integral to $\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/8}\sin^4(4x)\,dx=\dfrac{3\pi}{64}$.

   Apply the symmetric-interval identity. For an even function $g$,

   $\int_{-a}^{a}\frac{g(x)}{1+e^{4x}}\,dx=\int_0^{a}g(x)\,dx.$

   This follows from adding $I$ to its $x\to-x$ image: $\dfrac{1}{1+e^{4x}}+\dfrac{1}{1+e^{-4x}}=1$. Here $g(x)=\sin^4(4x)$ is even and $a=\dfrac{\pi}{8}$, so

   $I=\int_0^{\pi/8}\sin^4(4x)\,dx.$

   Evaluate. Substitute $u=4x$, $du=4\,dx$; limits $0\to\pi/2$: …

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6. TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-02-FN1 markMCQ
   Q.$\int_{-2\pi}^{2\pi} \sin^4 x \cos^6 x \, dx =$ (A) $\dfrac{3\pi}{128}$ (B) $\dfrac{9\pi}{32}$ (C) $\dfrac{9\pi}{64}$ (D) $\dfrac{3\pi}{64}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   The integral of an even power of sine and cosine over a full period can be reduced using symmetry and the Beta function; the value is $\frac{3\pi}{64}$, which corresponds to option (D).

   The key insight: the integrand $\sin^4 x \cos^6 x$ is an even function (since both sine and cosine are raised to even powers, the product is symmetric about $x=0$). Also, over $[-2\pi, 2\pi]$, the function repeats its pattern four times (period $\pi$ for the product of even powers). So we can simplify the integral to a multiple of an integral over $[0, \pi/2]$, where the classic Beta-function reduction applies.

   1. Use symmetry and periodicity. The function $f(x) = \sin^4 x \cos^6 x$ has period $\pi$ (because $\sin^2 x$ and $\cos^2 x$ have period $\pi$, and even powers preserve that). Over $[-2\pi, 2\pi]$, which is 4 periods of length $\pi$, we have

   $\int_{-2\pi}^{2\pi} f(x)\,dx = 4 \int_{0}^{\pi} f(x)\,dx.$

   Also, $f(x)$ is even, so $\int_{0}^{\pi} f(x)\,dx = 2\int_{0}^{\pi/2} f(x)\,dx$. Thus

   $\int_{-2\pi}^{2\pi} f(x)\,dx = 8 \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin^4 x \cos^6 x \, dx.$

   2. Reduce to a Beta integral. Recall the Beta function identity:

   $\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin^{2a-1} x \cos^{2b-1} x \, dx = \frac{1}{2} B(a,b) = \frac{\Gamma(a)\Gamma(b)}{2\,\Gamma(a+b)}.$

   Here we have $\sin^4 x = \sin^{2\cdot 2.5 - 1} x$? Let's match carefully: we want exponents $2a-1 = 4$ and $2b-1 = 6$, so

   $2a-1 = 4 \implies a = \frac{5}{2}, \qquad 2b-1 = 6 \implies b = \frac{7}{2}.$

   Then

   $\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin^4 x \cos^6 x \, dx = \frac{1}{2} B\!\left(\frac{5}{2}, \frac{7}{2}\right).$

   3. Evaluate the Beta function using Gamma values.

   $B\!\left(\frac{5}{2}, \frac{7}{2}\right) = \frac{\Gamma(5/2)\,\Gamma(7/2)}{\Gamma(6)}.$

   Recall $\Gamma(n) = (n-1)!$ for integers, and $\Gamma(1/2) = \sqrt{\pi}$.

   $\Gamma(5/2) = \frac{3}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \cdot \sqrt{\pi} = \frac{3\sqrt{\pi}}{4},$

   $\Gamma(7/2) = \frac{5}{2} \cdot \frac{3}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \cdot \sqrt{\pi} = \frac{15\sqrt{\pi}}{8},$

   $\Gamma(6) = 5! = 120.$

   So

   $$$$

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7. TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-10-FN1 markMCQ
   Q.$\int\limits_{0}^{\pi} (\sin^3 x + \cos^2 x)^2 dx =$ (A) $\dfrac{15\pi}{16} + \dfrac{8}{15}$ (B) $\dfrac{11\pi}{16} + \dfrac{8}{15}$ (C) $\dfrac{15\pi}{16} + \dfrac{4}{15}$ (D) $\dfrac{11\pi}{16} + \dfrac{4}{15}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   The integral simplifies by expanding the square, using symmetry and reduction formulas; the final value is $\frac{11\pi}{16} + \frac{8}{15}$, which corresponds to option (B).

   We start with

   $I = \int_0^\pi (\sin^3 x + \cos^2 x)^2 \, dx.$

   The key idea: expand the square, then use symmetry and standard trigonometric integrals. The presence of both odd and even powers suggests splitting the interval or using reduction formulas.

   1. Expand the square

   $(\sin^3 x + \cos^2 x)^2 = \sin^6 x + 2\sin^3 x \cos^2 x + \cos^4 x.$

   So

   $I = \int_0^\pi \sin^6 x \, dx + 2\int_0^\pi \sin^3 x \cos^2 x \, dx + \int_0^\pi \cos^4 x \, dx.$

   2. Use symmetry for the middle integral The function $\sin^3 x \cos^2 x$ is odd about $x = \pi/2$? Check: $\sin(\pi - x) = \sin x$, $\cos(\pi - x) = -\cos x$, so $\sin^3(\pi-x)\cos^2(\pi-x) = \sin^3 x \cos^2 x$. Actually it's symmetric, not odd. But better: note that $\sin^3 x \cos^2 x$ is an odd function with respect to $x = \pi/2$? Let's test: replace $x$ by $\pi - x$, the product is unchanged. So it's symmetric. However, we can compute directly using substitution $u = \cos x$:

   $\int_0^\pi \sin^3 x \cos^2 x \, dx = \int_0^\pi \sin x (1-\cos^2 x) \cos^2 x \, dx.$

   Let $u = \cos x$, $du = -\sin x \, dx$, limits: $x=0 \to u=1$, $x=\pi \to u=-1$. Then

   $\int_0^\pi \sin^3 x \cos^2 x \, dx = \int_1^{-1} (1-u^2) u^2 (-du) = \int_{-1}^1 (u^2 - u^4) \, du.$

   The integrand is even, so

   $= 2\int_0^1 (u^2 - u^4) \, du = 2\left[\frac{u^3}{3} - \frac{u^5}{5}\right]_0^1 = 2\left(\frac13 - \frac15\right) = 2\cdot\frac{2}{15} = \frac{4}{15}.$

   Thus

   $2\int_0^\pi \sin^3 x \cos^2 x \, dx = \frac{8}{15}.$

   3. Compute $\int_0^\pi \sin^6 x \, dx$ Use the reduction formula or known result:

   $\int_0^\pi \sin^{2n} x \, dx = \pi \cdot \frac{(2n-1)!!}{(2n)!!}.$

   For $n=3$, $\sin^6 x$ has even power, so

   $\int_0^\pi \sin^6 x \, dx = \pi \cdot \frac{5!!}{6!!} = \pi \cdot \frac{5 \cdot 3 \cdot 1}{6 \cdot 4 \cdot 2} = \pi \cdot \frac{15}{48} = \frac{5\pi}{16}.$

   (Check: $5!! = 15$, $6!! = 48$, yes.)

   4. Compute $\int_0^\pi \cos^4 x \, dx$ Since $\cos^4 x$ is symmetric about $\pi/2$, we can also use $\int_0^\pi \cos^4 x \, dx = 2\int_0^{\pi/2} \cos^4 x \, dx$. Use the reduction formula for $\int_0^{\pi/2} \cos^{2n} x \, dx = \frac{(2n-1)!!}{(2n)!!} \cdot \frac{\pi}{2}$. …

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8. TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-14-AN1 markMCQ
   Q.$\int_{3}^{6} \frac{\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{9-x}+\sqrt{x}} \, dx =$ (A) $\frac{1}{2}$ (B) $\frac{3}{2}$ (C) $2$ (D) $1$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   This integral is a classic symmetric-invariance problem: using the substitution $x \to 9 - x$ shows the integrand and its complement sum to 1, so the integral over $[3,6]$ is half the interval length, giving $\frac{3}{2}$.

   Concept & Intuition

   When you see an integral of the form $\int_a^b \frac{f(x)}{f(x) + f(a+b-x)} \, dx$, there’s a beautiful trick: the integrand and its “mirror image” add to 1. Here $a=3$, $b=6$, so $a+b=9$. The denominator is $\sqrt{9-x} + \sqrt{x}$, and the numerator is $\sqrt{x}$. If we replace $x$ by $9-x$, the numerator becomes $\sqrt{9-x}$ and the denominator stays the same (just swapped order). So the original integrand $I(x)$ and $I(9-x)$ sum to 1. Integrating over a symmetric interval around the midpoint $x=4.5$ then gives half the length of the interval.

   Step-by-step solution

   1. Define the integral Let

   $I = \int_{3}^{6} \frac{\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{9-x} + \sqrt{x}} \, dx.$

   2. Apply the substitution $x \to 9 - u$ Set $u = 9 - x$. Then $dx = -du$, and when $x=3$, $u=6$; when $x=6$, $u=3$. So

   $I = \int_{6}^{3} \frac{\sqrt{9-u}}{\sqrt{u} + \sqrt{9-u}} \, (-du) = \int_{3}^{6} \frac{\sqrt{9-u}}{\sqrt{u} + \sqrt{9-u}} \, du.$

   Since $u$ is a dummy variable, rename it $x$:

   $I = \int_{3}^{6} \frac{\sqrt{9-x}}{\sqrt{x} + \sqrt{9-x}} \, dx.$

   3. Add the two expressions for $I$ We now have two representations:

   $I = \int_{3}^{6} \frac{\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{9-x} + \sqrt{x}} \, dx \quad \text{and} \quad I = \int_{3}^{6} \frac{\sqrt{9-x}}{\sqrt{x} + \sqrt{9-x}} \, dx.$

   Adding them:

   $$2I = \int_{3}^{6} \left( \frac{\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{9-x} + \sqrt{x}} + \frac{\sqrt{9-x}}{\sqrt{x} + \sqrt{9-x}} \right) dx. …$$

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9. TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-09-FN1 markMCQ
   Q.$\int_{-2}^{2} x^4 (4-x^2)^7 dx =$ (A) $4\pi$ (B) $\dfrac{\pi}{16}$ (C) $28\pi$ (D) $\dfrac{3\pi}{128}$

   ›Reveal solutionSolution

   With the even integrand and the substitution $x=2\sin\theta$, the integral reduces to a Beta function. For the value to be a multiple of $\pi$ the intended power is $(4-x^2)^{7/2}$; evaluating gives $28\pi$. Answer: (C).

   Concept

   An integral of the form $\int_{-2}^{2}x^{4}(4-x^2)^{m}\,dx$ with $m$ a half-integer becomes a Beta/Gamma expression under $x=2\sin\theta$, producing a rational multiple of $\pi$. The choices here ($4\pi,\ \pi/16,\ 28\pi,\ 3\pi/128$) are all multiples of $\pi$, which is only possible when the exponent is $\tfrac{7}{2}$ (a half-integer), so the integrand is read as $x^{4}(4-x^2)^{7/2}$.

   Note

   A strict polynomial power $(4-x^2)^{7}$ would integrate to a rational number with no $\pi$, inconsistent with every option. The exponent is therefore taken as $\tfrac{7}{2}$, which the printed options require; the solution below uses that reading and lands on the exam key.

   Solution

   1. Use symmetry. The integrand is even, so

   $I=\int_{-2}^{2}x^{4}(4-x^2)^{7/2}\,dx=2\int_{0}^{2}x^{4}(4-x^2)^{7/2}\,dx.$

   2. Substitute $x=2\sin\theta$, $dx=2\cos\theta\,d\theta$, with $4-x^2=4\cos^2\theta$:

   $x^{4}=16\sin^4\theta,\qquad (4-x^2)^{7/2}=(4\cos^2\theta)^{7/2}=128\cos^7\theta.$

   Therefore

   $I=2\int_{0}^{\pi/2}16\sin^4\theta\cdot128\cos^7\theta\cdot2\cos\theta\,d\theta=8192\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\sin^4\theta\cos^8\theta\,d\theta.$

   3. Beta function. Using $\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\sin^{2p-1}\theta\cos^{2q-1}\theta\,d\theta=\tfrac12 B(p,q)$ with $p=\tfrac52,\ q=\tfrac92$: …

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10. TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-13-AN1 markMCQ
    Q.$\int_{0}^{2} x^3 (2-x)^4 \, dx =$ (A) $\dfrac{128}{105}$ (B) $\dfrac{16}{35}$ (C) $\dfrac{256}{105}$ (D) $\dfrac{32}{35}$

    ›Reveal solutionSolution

    Substitute $u=2-x$ and expand; the integral evaluates to $\dfrac{32}{35}$.

    Setup. Let $u = 2-x$, so $x = 2-u$ and $dx = -du$. The limits map $x:0\to2$ into $u:2\to0$:

    $\int_{0}^{2} x^3(2-x)^4\,dx = \int_{0}^{2} (2-u)^3\,u^4\,du.$

    Expand $(2-u)^3 = 8 - 12u + 6u^2 - u^3$, so the integrand becomes

    $8u^4 - 12u^5 + 6u^6 - u^7.$

    Integrate term-by-term from $0$ to $2$:

    $\left[\frac{8}{5}u^5 - 2u^6 + \frac{6}{7}u^7 - \frac{1}{8}u^8\right]_0^2.$

    At $u=2$: $\dfrac{8}{5}(32) - 2(64) + \dfrac{6}{7}(128) - \dfrac{1}{8}(256) = \dfrac{256}{5} - 128 + \dfrac{768}{7} - 32.$ …

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11. TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-02-AN1 markMCQ
    Q.Let $m, n, p, q$ be four positive integers. If $\int_{0}^{2\pi} \sin^m x \cos^n x dx = 4 \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin^m x \cos^n x dx$, $\int_{0}^{2\pi} \sin^p x \cos^q x dx = 0$, $\int_{0}^{\pi} \sin^r x \cos^q x dx = 0$, $a = m + n + p$ and $b = m + n + q$, then (A) a is even number and b is odd number (B) a is odd number and b is even number (C) Both a and b are even numbers (D) Both a and b are odd numbers

    ›Reveal solutionSolution

    Both $a$ and $b$ are odd numbers — option (D).

    Analyse each condition by symmetry.

    • $\displaystyle\int_{0}^{2\pi}\sin^{m}x\cos^{n}x\,dx=4\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\sin^{m}x\cos^{n}x\,dx$ requires the integrand to be non-negative with quarter-period symmetry, i.e. $m$ and $n$ are both even.
    • $\displaystyle\int_{0}^{2\pi}\sin^{p}x\cos^{q}x\,dx=0$: under $x\to 2\pi-x$ the integral picks up a factor $(-1)^{p}$, so it vanishes only if $p$ is odd. …

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12. TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-14-FN1 markMCQ
    Q.$\int_{-1}^{1} x |x| dx =$ (A) $1$ (B) $\dfrac{1}{2}$ (C) $0$ (D) $\dfrac{2}{3}$

    ›Reveal solutionSolution

    The integral of an odd function over a symmetric interval is zero. Since $x|x|$ is odd, the definite integral from $-1$ to $1$ is $0$.

    The key idea here is symmetry. When you integrate an odd function over an interval symmetric about zero, the positive and negative contributions cancel perfectly. The function $f(x) = x|x|$ is odd because $f(-x) = (-x)|-x| = -x|x| = -f(x)$. So instead of doing any messy piecewise integration, we can immediately see the result.

    Let’s verify this step by step to be thorough.

    1. Understand the function

       The absolute value makes the function piecewise:

       • For $x \ge 0$, $|x| = x$, so $x|x| = x \cdot x = x^2$.
       • For $x < 0$, $|x| = -x$, so $x|x| = x \cdot (-x) = -x^2$. So $f(x) = \begin{cases} -x^2, & x < 0 \\ x^2, & x \ge 0 \end{cases}$. This confirms it’s odd: the graph for negative $x$ is the mirror image (with opposite sign) of the graph for positive $x$.

    2. Split the integral at the symmetry point

       Since the function changes definition at $x=0$, we write:

    $\int_{-1}^{1} x|x| \, dx = \int_{-1}^{0} (-x^2) \, dx + \int_{0}^{1} x^2 \, dx.$

    3. Evaluate each piece
       • For the left part: $\int_{-1}^{0} -x^2 \, dx = -\left[ \frac{x^3}{3} \right]_{-1}^{0} = -\left(0 - \frac{(-1)^3}{3}\right) = -\left(0 + \frac{1}{3}\right) = -\frac{1}{3}$. …

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