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Exercise · Q7

Q.Is it possible for a body to have zero velocity at some instant and yet be accelerating at that very instant? Justify your answer with a suitable example.

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Yes, this is possible, because velocity and acceleration are two independent instantaneous quantities — one being momentarily zero does not force the other to be zero as well.

Example: a ball thrown vertically upward. Consider a ball thrown straight up with some initial speed. As it rises, gravity continuously decelerates it (acceleration =g= g, directed downward, throughout the entire flight — this never switches off). At the very instant the ball reaches its highest point, its velocity is exactly zero (it is momentarily neither rising nor falling), yet the acceleration at that same instant is still gg, directed downward, exactly as it was a moment before and a moment after. If the acceleration were actually zero at that instant, the ball would remain suspended there forever with zero velocity; instead, it immediately begins to fall, which is only possible because a nonzero downward acceleration was acting on it even while its velocity was zero.

General principle. Velocity, v=dx/dtv = dx/dt, and acceleration, a=dv/dta = dv/dt, are both instantaneous rates evaluated at a single moment; there is no mathematical requirement that one vanishing forces the other to vanish. A body can be momentarily at rest (an instant where the position-time graph's tangent is horizontal) while its velocity-time graph is still sloped (nonzero acceleration) at that exact same instant.

[!ANSWER] Yes — a ball thrown vertically upward has zero velocity at its highest point but a nonzero downward acceleration (g) at that same instant, since velocity and acceleration are independent instantaneous quantities.

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