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Q.Assertion (A): Value of the expression sin−1 (√3 2 ) + tan−1 1 − sec−1(√2) is 𝜋

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✓ Free question

Evaluating each term in its principal branch gives π3+π4−π4=π3\dfrac{\pi}{3}+\dfrac{\pi}{4}-\dfrac{\pi}{4}=\dfrac{\pi}{3}, so the expression equals π3\dfrac{\pi}{3} — not π\pi. Assertion (A) is false.

Evaluate each inverse-trigonometric value in its principal range.

  • sin⁡−1 ⁣(32)=π3\sin^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{\sqrt3}{2}\right)=\dfrac{\pi}{3}, since sin⁡π3=32\sin\dfrac{\pi}{3}=\dfrac{\sqrt3}{2} and π3∈[−π2,π2]\dfrac{\pi}{3}\in\left[-\tfrac{\pi}{2},\tfrac{\pi}{2}\right].
  • tan⁡−1(1)=π4\tan^{-1}(1)=\dfrac{\pi}{4}, since tan⁡π4=1\tan\dfrac{\pi}{4}=1 and π4∈(−π2,π2)\dfrac{\pi}{4}\in\left(-\tfrac{\pi}{2},\tfrac{\pi}{2}\right).
  • sec⁡−1(2)=π4\sec^{-1}(\sqrt2)=\dfrac{\pi}{4}, since sec⁡π4=2\sec\dfrac{\pi}{4}=\sqrt2 and π4∈[0,π]\dfrac{\pi}{4}\in[0,\pi].

Therefore

sin⁡−1 ⁣(32)+tan⁡−1(1)−sec⁡−1(2)=π3+π4−π4=π3.\sin^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{\sqrt3}{2}\right)+\tan^{-1}(1)-\sec^{-1}(\sqrt2)=\dfrac{\pi}{3}+\dfrac{\pi}{4}-\dfrac{\pi}{4}=\dfrac{\pi}{3}.

✓Final answer

The value of the expression is π3\dfrac{\pi}{3}, not π\pi. Hence Assertion (A) is false.

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