Q.Evaluate the integral using substitution ∫01sin−1(1+x22x)dx
Concept understanding — U Substitution
U Substitution: The Reverse Chain Rule
The chain rule differentiates composite functions: the derivative of sin(x2) is cos(x2)⋅2x — differentiate the outer function, then multiply by the derivative of the inside. Integration asks the reverse: given cos(x2)⋅2x, find the original function. That's what u substitution does — it reverses the chain rule.
The Core Intuition
When an integral looks like "a function times the derivative of its inside," substitute the inside with u and the derivative of the inside with du. Consider:
∫2xcos(x2)dx
Here 2x is the derivative of x2, and x2 is the inside of cos(x2). Let u=x2, so du=2xdx:
∫cos(u)du=sin(u)+C=sin(x2)+C
Check: the derivative of sin(x2) is cos(x2)⋅2x.
The Precise Statement
∫f(g(x))⋅g′(x)dx=∫f(u)duwhere u=g(x),du=g′(x)dx
Valid provided g is differentiable and the resulting integral in u is simpler.
The Step-by-Step Method
- Identify a function g(x) whose derivative g′(x) also appears (possibly up to a constant factor).
- Set u=g(x), compute du=g′(x)dx.
- Rewrite the entire integral in u and du — every x and dx must be replaced.
- Integrate with respect to u.
- Substitute back u=g(x).
You cannot mix variables. If any x remains after substitution, you chose the wrong u (or must solve for x in terms of u — rare).
A Second Example (with a constant factor)
Evaluate ∫xx2+1dx. Let u=x2+1, so xdx=21du:
∫u⋅21du=21⋅32u3/2+C=31(x2+1)3/2+C
When Does It Work?
When the integrand is something times the derivative of something inside. Common patterns:
- x⋅f(x2) — derivative of x2 is 2x, so u=x2
- eg(x)⋅g′(x) — derivative of g(x) appears
- g(x)g′(x) — leads to log∣g(x)∣
If stuck, differentiate a candidate "inside" function in your head. If its derivative (up to a constant) appears, that's your u.
The Definite Integral Case
Either change the limits (when x=a, u=g(a); when x=b, u=g(b); then integrate in u), or integrate in u, substitute back, and use the original limits. Changing limits is cleaner:
∫x=0x=12xcos(x2)dx=∫u=0u=1cos(u)du=sin(1)−sin(0)=sin(1)
Common Mistake to Avoid
Don't confuse du with Δu. du is a differential — the exact relationship du=g′(x)dx that holds inside the integral. Treat it algebraically: multiply, divide, and substitute freely.
U-substitution, taught in the CBSE Class 12 Integrals chapter as the method of substitution, is one of the very first integration techniques students learn after the standard formulas, and "integration by substitution class 12 examples" is a heavily searched revision topic. It remains equally essential for solving integral calculus problems in JEE Main and JEE Advanced.
The key idea is to use the substitution x=tanθ, which simplifies the argument of the inverse sine.
Let x=tanθ. Then dx=sec2θdθ. When x=0, θ=0; when x=1, θ=4π.
The integrand becomes:
sin−1(1+tan2θ2tanθ)=sin−1(sin2θ)=2θ
since 2θ∈[0,2π] for θ∈[0,4π], which is within the principal range of sin−1.
The integral transforms to:
∫0π/42θ⋅sec2θdθ
Integrate by parts: let u=2θ, dv=sec2θdθ, so du=2dθ, v=tanθ. Then:
[2θtanθ]0π/4−∫0π/42tanθdθ=(2⋅4π⋅1−0)−2[−log∣cosθ∣]0π/4
=2π+2(log21−log1)=2π−log2
The value is 2π−log2.
The key idea is to use the substitution x=tanθ, which simplifies the integrand’s argument to 2θ for θ∈[0,π/4], turning the integral into 2∫0π/4θsec2θdθ. Integration by parts then yields the value 2π−log2.
We are asked to evaluate
I=∫01sin−1(1+x22x)dx.
The expression inside the inverse sine, 1+x22x, is a classic double-angle form. If you recall the tangent half-angle identities, you know that for x=tanθ,
1+tan2θ2tanθ=sin2θ.
This is the natural path: the substitution x=tanθ will simplify the integrand dramatically.
But there is a subtlety: the range of sin−1 is [−π/2,π/2], and for x∈[0,1], θ runs from 0 to π/4, so 2θ lies in [0,π/2], safely inside the principal range. No sign issues.
Let’s work through it step by step.
- Substitute x=tanθ. Then dx=sec2θdθ. When x=0, θ=0; when x=1, θ=π/4. The integral becomes
I=∫0π/4sin−1(1+tan2θ2tanθ)sec2θdθ.
- Simplify the argument. Since 1+tan2θ=sec2θ, we have
1+tan2θ2tanθ=sec2θ2tanθ=2sinθcosθ=sin2θ.
Therefore,
I=∫0π/4sin−1(sin2θ)sec2θdθ.
- Handle the inverse sine. For θ∈[0,π/4], 2θ∈[0,π/2], and on this interval sin−1(sin2θ)=2θ (since sine is one-to-one and increasing there). So
I=∫0π/42θsec2θdθ=2∫0π/4θsec2θdθ.
- Integrate by parts. Let u=θ and dv=sec2θdθ. Then du=dθ and v=tanθ. Integration by parts gives
∫θsec2θdθ=θtanθ−∫tanθdθ.
We know ∫tanθdθ=−log∣cosθ∣+C, so
∫θsec2θdθ=θtanθ+log∣cosθ∣+C.
- Evaluate the definite integral.
I=2[θtanθ+log(cosθ)]0π/4.
At θ=π/4: tan(π/4)=1, cos(π/4)=2/2, so log(cos(π/4))=log(1/2)=−21log2.
At θ=0: θtanθ=0⋅0=0, and log(cos0)=log1=0.
Hence
I=2(4π⋅1−21log2−0)=2(4π−21log2)=2π−log2.
A common mistake is to forget that sin−1(sin2θ)=2θ only holds when 2θ is in [−π/2,π/2]. Here it’s fine, but if the upper limit were larger (say x>1), the identity would need adjustment.
The substitution x=tanθ is a reflex for integrands involving 1+x22x or 1+x21−x2 — they become sin2θ and cos2θ respectively. Keep it in your toolkit.
The value of the integral is 2π−log2.
Method: Trigonometric substitution to simplify an inverse-trig integrand
An argument like 1+x22x (or 1+x21−x2) is a disguised double-angle form; substituting x=tanθ collapses the inverse-trig function to a plain multiple of θ.
Steps
Step 1: Recognise the double-angle template and substitute x=tanθ.
Then dx=sec2θdθ, and 1+tan2θ2tanθ=sin2θ.
Step 2: Collapse the inverse function on its valid range.
sin−1(sin2θ)=2θ only while 2θ∈[−2π,2π] — always check the limits fall in the principal range before dropping the inverse.
Step 3: Integrate the resulting θsec2θ by parts.
Take u=θ, dv=sec2θdθ, giving ∫θsec2θdθ=θtanθ−∫tanθdθ=θtanθ+log∣cosθ∣.
Step 4: Evaluate at the transformed limits.
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Writing sin−1(sin2θ)=2θ without checking the range.
Why it's wrong: the identity holds only when 2θ∈[−2π,2π]; if the limits pushed 2θ outside this, a correction is needed. Correct approach: confirm θ∈[0,4π] so 2θ∈[0,2π] is safe.
Mistake 2: Forgetting the sec2θ from dx=sec2θdθ.
Why it's wrong: the integral is ∫2θsec2θdθ, not ∫2θdθ; dropping sec2θ loses the by-parts entirely. Correct approach: keep dx=sec2θdθ and integrate θsec2θ by parts.
- TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-04-FN1 markMCQQ.If ∫x11+x1−xdx=2f(x)−2sin−1x+c, then f(x)= (A) log(x1+x−1) (B) log(x1+x) (C) csc−1x (D) sech−1x
›Reveal solutionSolution
Put x=cosθ; the integrand becomes −2(secθ−1), giving a sin−1x part (matching the given form) plus a logarithmic part that is the inverse hyperbolic secant of x, i.e. f(x)=sech−1x.
Concept. A half-angle trigonometric substitution rationalises 1+x1−x, because 1+cosθ1−cosθ=tan2θ.
Step 1 — substitute. Let x=cosθ, θ∈(0,2π), so x=cos2θ, dx=−2cosθsinθdθ:
I=∫cos2θ1tan2θ(−2cosθsinθ)dθ=−2∫tan2θ⋅cosθsinθdθ.
Step 2 — simplify with half-angles. tan2θsinθ=2sin22θ=1−cosθ, hence
I=−2∫cosθ1−cosθdθ=−2∫(secθ−1)dθ=−2log∣secθ+tanθ∣+2θ+C.
Step 3 — return to x. With θ=cos−1x: 2θ=π−2sin−1x (the π is absorbed into the constant), secθ+tanθ=x1+1−x. So
I=2log1+1−xx−2sin−1x+C′.
Step 4 — identify f. Comparing with I=2f(x)−2sin−1x+c:
f(x)=log1+1−xx=logx1−1−x,
(using (1+1−x)(1−1−x)=x). This logarithm is precisely the inverse hyperbolic secant evaluated at x — the sech−1x form listed (the two log-branches of sech−1y are logy1±1−y2). The csc−1x option is impossible on the domain 0<x<1 (it needs x≥1), and the plain log options differentiate to 2x1+x1-type expressions, not the required 2x1−x1.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D): f(x)=sech−1x.
ANSWER: D
- TG EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-04-AN1 markMCQQ.If ∫x11+x1−xdx=2f(x)−2sin−1x+c, then f(x)= (A) Sech−1x (B) Cosec−1x (C) log(x1+x) (D) log(x1+x−1)
›Reveal solutionSolution
f(x)=Sech−1x — option (A).
The standard form of this integral splits into an inverse-hyperbolic-secant part and an arcsine part. Writing the integrand as
x11−x1−x=x1−x1−x1−x1,
and integrating each term:
∫x1−xdx=2sin−1x,∫x1−xdx=−2Sech−1x,
since dxdSech−1x=−2x1−x1 and dxdsin−1x=2x1−x1.
Comparing with the given form 2f(x)−2sin−1x+c, the non-arcsine part is the inverse-hyperbolic-secant term, so
f(x)=Sech−1x.
(Note: as printed, the radical in the integrand appears mistyped; the arcsine term in the stated result requires a 1−x factor. The result above matches the intended standard integral and the exam key.)
✓Final answer(A) Sech−1x.
- TG EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-06-FN1 markMCQQ.For x≥0, ∫x2+2xdx= (A) 2x+1x2+2x+21sinh−1(2x+1)+C (B) 2x+1x2+2x+21sinh−1(x+1)+C (C) 2x+1x2+2x−21cosh−1(2x+1)+C (D) 2x+1x2+2x−21cosh−1(x+1)+C
›Reveal solutionSolution
To evaluate the integral ∫x2+2xdx, we first complete the square inside the square root to transform it into a standard integral form ∫u2−a2du. Applying the corresponding formula yields the result 2x+1x2+2x−21cosh−1(x+1)+C.
The integral ∫x2+2xdx involves the square root of a quadratic expression. Integrals of the form ∫ax2+bx+cdx are typically solved by completing the square for the quadratic expression ax2+bx+c. This transforms the integral into one of three standard forms: ∫a2−u2du, ∫u2+a2du, or ∫u2−a2du, for which direct formulas exist.
In this problem, we will complete the square for x2+2x and then apply the appropriate standard integral formula.
- Complete the square for the expression under the square root: The quadratic expression is x2+2x. To complete the square, we add and subtract the square of half the coefficient of x. The coefficient of x is 2, so half of it is 1, and its square is 12=1.
x2+2x=(x2+2x+1)−1=(x+1)2−12
Now the integral becomes $\int \sqrt{(x+1)^2 - 1^2} \, dx$.2. Identify the standard integral form:
Let u=x+1. Then du=dx. The integral transforms to ∫u2−12du.
This is of the form ∫u2−a2du, where a=1.
- Apply the standard integral formula:
The standard formula for ∫y2−a2dy is:
∫y2−a2dy=2yy2−a2−2a2cosh−1(ay)+C
Applying this formula with y=u and a=1:
∫u2−12du=2uu2−12−212cosh−1(1u)+C
=2uu2−1−21cosh−1(u)+C
> [!WARNING] > Be careful with the sign and the inverse hyperbolic function. For $\sqrt{y^2 - a^2}$, it's $\cosh^{-1}$ with a negative sign. For $\sqrt{y^2 + a^2}$, it's $\sinh^{-1}$ with a positive sign.4. Substitute back and simplify:
Substitute u=x+1 back into the expression:
2x+1(x+1)2−1−21cosh−1(x+1)+C
Simplify the term under the square root: $(x+1)^2 - 1 = x^2 + 2x + 1 - 1 = x^2 + 2x$. So the integral evaluates to:2x+1x2+2x−21cosh−1(x+1)+C
-
Compare with the given options:
Comparing our result with the provided options:
(A) 2x+1x2+2x+21sinh−1(2x+1)+C
(B) 2x+1x2+2x+21sinh−1(x+1)+C
(C) 2x+1x2+2x−21cosh−1(2x+1)+C
(D) 2x+1x2+2x−21cosh−1(x+1)+C
Our derived expression matches option (D). The condition x≥0 ensures that x+1≥1, so cosh−1(x+1) is well-defined.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (D).
- TG EAPCET 2026Set eng-2026-05-09-AN1 markMCQQ.∫16cos2x+9cosxdx= (A) 41sinh−1(54sinx)+c (B) 41sin−1(54sinx)+c (C) 41cosh−1(34sinx)+c (D) 41cos−1(34cosx)+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
Rewrite the root as 25−16sin2x and substitute t=sinx; the integral is a standard arcsin form giving 41sin−1(54sinx)+c — option (B).
1. Simplify the denominator. Using cos2x=1−sin2x,
16cos2x+9=16(1−sin2x)+9=25−16sin2x.
2. Substitute t=sinx, so dt=cosxdx:
∫16cos2x+9cosxdx=∫25−16t2dt.
3. Reduce to standard form. Since 25−16t2=25(1−(54t)2),
∫51−(54t)2dt=51∫1−(54t)2dt.
Let u=54t, dt=45du:
51⋅45∫1−u2du=41sin−1u+c=41sin−1(54t)+c.
4. Back-substitute t=sinx. A minus sign under the root means an inverse sine, not an inverse hyperbolic sine.
Check: dxd[41sin−1(54sinx)]=25−16sin2xcosx=16cos2x+9cosx, matching the integrand.
✓Final answer41sin−1(54sinx)+c — option (B).
- TG EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-05-AN1 markMCQQ.If f(x)+K is obtained by evaluating ∫(1+x2)3x3dx using the substitution x=tanθ and g(x)+C is obtained by evaluating ∫(1+x2)3x3dx, using the substitution x2+1=Z, then f(x)−g(x)+K−C= (A) 41 (B) any constant (C) any function of x (D) 1+x2x
›Reveal solutionSolution
The two methods differ only by a constant, so f(x)−g(x)+K−C is any constant — option (B).
The core idea here is that two different antiderivatives of the same function can differ by a constant. When you evaluate an indefinite integral using two different substitutions, you get expressions that look different but are actually the same up to an additive constant. The question asks for the difference between those two expressions, including their arbitrary constants — and that difference is just a constant.
Let’s work through both methods carefully.
- First method: x=tanθ Substitute x=tanθ, so dx=sec2θdθ and 1+x2=1+tan2θ=sec2θ. The integral becomes:
∫(sec2θ)3tan3θ⋅sec2θdθ=∫sec4θtan3θdθ=∫sin3θcosθdθ
Let u=sinθ, then du=cosθdθ, giving:
∫u3du=4u4+K=4sin4θ+K
Since sinθ=1+x2x, we get:
f(x)+K=4(1+x2)2x4+K
- Second method: x2+1=Z Substitute Z=x2+1, so dZ=2xdx and x2=Z−1. The integral becomes:
∫(1+x2)3x3dx=∫(Z)3x2⋅xdx
Since xdx=2dZ and x2=Z−1, we have:
∫Z3(Z−1)⋅2dZ=21∫(Z−2−Z−3)dZ
Integrating:
21(−Z−1+2Z−2)+C=−2Z1+4Z21+C
Substitute back Z=1+x2:
g(x)+C=−2(1+x2)1+4(1+x2)21+C
- Compare the two results Write f(x)+K from method 1:
f(x)+K=4(1+x2)2x4+K
Write g(x)+C from method 2:
g(x)+C=−2(1+x2)1+4(1+x2)21+C
Now compute f(x)−g(x)+K−C:
f(x)−g(x)+K−C=4(1+x2)2x4−(−2(1+x2)1+4(1+x2)21)+(K−C)
Simplify the x-terms:
4(1+x2)2x4−4(1+x2)21+2(1+x2)1=4(1+x2)2x4−1+2(1+x2)1
Note x4−1=(x2−1)(x2+1), so:
4(1+x2)2(x2−1)(x2+1)+2(1+x2)1=4(1+x2)x2−1+2(1+x2)1
Combine:
4(1+x2)x2−1+2=4(1+x2)x2+1=41
So f(x)−g(x)+K−C=41+(K−C).
Since K and C are arbitrary constants, 41+(K−C) is itself an arbitrary constant. Therefore the expression is any constant.
Watch outA common mistake is to forget that K and C are arbitrary constants, not fixed numbers. The difference 41+(K−C) is not fixed at 41 — it can be any real number depending on the choice of K and C.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (B) — any constant.
- TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-14-AN1 markMCQQ.∫1−3cotx1+3cotxdx= (A) −2x+23logsin(x−3π)+c (B) 2x+23logsin(x−3π)+c (C) −2x−23log[sin(x−3π)]+c (D) 2x−23logsin(x−3π)+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
The integrand simplifies to a form involving tan(x−π/3), leading to a logarithmic integral. The correct antiderivative is −2x+23logsin(x−3π)+c, which corresponds to option (A).
The key insight is that the expression 1−3cotx1+3cotx looks like a tangent addition formula in disguise. Recall that cotx=sinxcosx, and 3=tan(π/3). This suggests rewriting the integrand in terms of tan or sin and cos to reveal a simpler structure.
- Rewrite in terms of sine and cosine Since cotx=sinxcosx, we have:
1−3cotx1+3cotx=1−3sinxcosx1+3sinxcosx=sinx−3cosxsinx+3cosx.
- Recognize a tangent addition formula Notice that sinx+3cosx and sinx−3cosx resemble the expansion of sin(x±π/3) because:
sin(x+3π)=sinxcos3π+cosxsin3π=21sinx+23cosx,
and similarly,
sin(x−3π)=21sinx−23cosx.
Multiplying numerator and denominator by 2, we get:
sinx−3cosxsinx+3cosx=2sin(x−3π)2sin(x+3π)=sin(x−3π)sin(x+3π).
- Use a trigonometric identity to simplify further The ratio of sines can be expressed using the identity:
sin(B)sin(A)=sinBsin((A−B)+B)=cos(A−B)+cotBsin(A−B).
Here A=x+π/3, B=x−π/3, so A−B=2π/3. Thus:
sin(x−3π)sin(x+3π)=cos32π+cot(x−3π)sin32π.
Since cos(2π/3)=−1/2 and sin(2π/3)=3/2, we have:
sin(x−3π)sin(x+3π)=−21+23cot(x−3π).
- Integrate term by term The integral becomes:
∫[−21+23cot(x−3π)]dx=−2x+23∫cot(x−3π)dx.
Recall that ∫cotudu=log∣sinu∣+c. So with u=x−π/3, du=dx, we get:
∫cot(x−3π)dx=logsin(x−3π)+c.
Therefore:
∫1−3cotx1+3cotxdx=−2x+23logsin(x−3π)+c.
Watch outA common mistake is forgetting the absolute value inside the log or misplacing the sign of the x/2 term. Always check the sign from cos(2π/3)=−1/2.
TipThe step of rewriting the ratio of sines as a constant plus a cotangent is a neat trick that avoids messy algebra. It works because the difference A−B is constant.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A).
ANSWER: A
- TG EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-11-FN1 markMCQQ.∫3(secx+tanx)+2secxdx= (A) 21logtan2x+5tan2x+1+c (B) 112tan−1(113tan2x+4)+c (C) log∣3secx+2tanx∣+c (D) log∣3tanx+2secx∣+c
›Reveal solutionSolution
The integral simplifies by substituting t=tan2x, converting it into a rational function, which after partial fractions yields a logarithmic result matching option (A).
We are asked to evaluate
∫3(secx+tanx)+2secxdx.
The presence of secx and tanx together suggests using the Weierstrass substitution t=tan2x. This substitution turns trigonometric integrals into rational ones, which we can handle with partial fractions. The trick is to express secx and tanx in terms of t, simplify, and then integrate.
- Recall the standard Weierstrass substitution formulas:
sinx=1+t22t,cosx=1+t21−t2,tanx=1−t22t,secx=cosx1=1−t21+t2.
Also, dx=1+t22dt.
- Rewrite the integrand in terms of t: The denominator is
3(secx+tanx)+2=3(1−t21+t2+1−t22t)+2=3(1−t21+t2+2t)+2.
Notice 1+t2+2t=(1+t)2, so
=1−t23(1+t)2+2=1−t23(1+t)2+1−t22(1−t2)=1−t23(1+t)2+2(1−t2).
Expand:
3(1+2t+t2)+2−2t2=3+6t+3t2+2−2t2=5+6t+t2.
So denominator becomes 1−t2t2+6t+5.
The numerator secx is 1−t21+t2, and dx=1+t22dt.
Hence the integral becomes
∫1−t2t2+6t+51−t21+t2⋅1+t22dt=∫1−t21+t2⋅t2+6t+51−t2⋅1+t22dt.
The factors (1+t2) and (1−t2) cancel neatly, leaving
∫t2+6t+52dt.
- Factor the quadratic and use partial fractions: t2+6t+5=(t+1)(t+5). So
(t+1)(t+5)2=t+1A+t+5B.
Multiply through: 2=A(t+5)+B(t+1).
Set t=−1: 2=A(4)⇒A=21.
Set t=−5: 2=B(−4)⇒B=−21.
Thus
∫(t+1)(t+5)2dt=21∫(t+11−t+51)dt.
- Integrate:
21(log∣t+1∣−log∣t+5∣)+c=21logt+5t+1+c.
- Substitute back t=tan2x:
21logtan2x+5tan2x+1+c.
This matches option (A) exactly.
Watch outA common mistake is to try direct manipulation of secx and tanx without substitution, leading to messy expressions. The Weierstrass substitution cleanly eliminates all trigonometric functions.
TipNotice how the numerator secx and the dx factor conspire to cancel the 1+t2 terms — this is a hallmark of integrals where the substitution works smoothly.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (A).
ANSWER: A
- TG EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-12-FN1 markMCQQ.If ∫sin(10Lx)(sinx)99dx=μsin(100x)(sinx)2+c then μλ= (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
›Reveal solutionSolution
The integrand sin(101x)sin99x is exactly 1001dxd[sin100xsin100x], so the integral is 100sin(100x)sin100x+c. Matching gives λ=μ=100 and λ/μ=1 — option (A).
The concept: recognise the answer, then differentiate to confirm
When an integral like this appears with the answer's shape already given, the fastest and safest route is to differentiate the proposed antiderivative and see whether it reproduces the integrand. The key algebraic hint is the split of the angle:
101x=100x+x
which is exactly the kind of decomposition the compound-angle formula
sin(A+B)=sinAcosB+cosAsinB
is built for.
Step 1 — Differentiate the candidate
Let
F(x)=sin100x⋅sin(100x)
By the product rule (and the chain rule on sin100x):
F′(x)=100sin99xcosx⋅sin(100x)+sin100x⋅100cos(100x)
Step 2 — Factor out 100sin99x
F′(x)=100sin99x[cosxsin(100x)+sinxcos(100x)]
The bracket is precisely sin(100x+x):
F′(x)=100sin99xsin(101x)
Step 3 — Integrate
Dividing by 100 and integrating back:
∫sin(101x)sin99xdx=100sin100xsin(100x)+c
Step 4 — Read off λ and μ
The result is written in the form
μsin(100x)(sinx)λ+c
Comparing term by term:
λ=100,μ=100
μλ=100100=1
Step 5 — Reflect
The elegance here is that no substitution or integration by parts is needed at all — the integrand is a derivative in disguise, and the 101=100+1 split is the clue that gives it away.
✓Final answerμλ=1.
ANSWER: A
- TG EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-06-FN1 markMCQQ.
[!FORMULA] ∫(x2−a2)23dx=
(A) (x2−a2)a2x+C (B) −a21(x2−a2)25+C (C) −a2(x2−a2)x+C (D) a2(x2−a2)1+C›Reveal solutionSolution
The integral ∫(x2−a2)3/2dx is solved by a trigonometric substitution x=asecθ, which simplifies the denominator into a single power of tanθ, leading to a simple integration. The correct answer is option (C).
The key here is that the denominator has a power of 3/2, which is an awkward exponent. Direct substitution or partial fractions won't help. But if we can rewrite the expression so that the square root in the denominator becomes a simple trigonometric function, the integration becomes straightforward.
The form x2−a2 under a square root (or a power of it) is a classic signal for the substitution x=asecθ. Why? Because sec2θ−1=tan2θ, so x2−a2=a2tan2θ, and the square root becomes a∣tanθ∣. For x>a (the usual domain), tanθ>0, so we can drop the absolute value.
Let's work through it.
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Substitute x=asecθ.
Then dx=asecθtanθdθ.
Also, x2−a2=a2(sec2θ−1)=a2tan2θ.
Therefore (x2−a2)3/2=(a2tan2θ)3/2=a3∣tanθ∣3. For θ∈(0,π/2) (so x>a), tanθ>0, so this is a3tan3θ.
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Rewrite the integral.
∫(x2−a2)3/2dx=∫a3tan3θasecθtanθdθ=a21∫tan2θsecθdθ.
- Simplify the trigonometric expression. tan2θsecθ=sin2θ/cos2θ1/cosθ=cosθ1⋅sin2θcos2θ=sin2θcosθ=cotθcscθ. So the integral becomes
a21∫cotθcscθdθ.
- Integrate. Recall that dθd(cscθ)=−cotθcscθ. Hence ∫cotθcscθdθ=−cscθ+C. So
a21∫cotθcscθdθ=−a21cscθ+C.
- Back-substitute to x. From x=asecθ, we have secθ=ax. Draw a right triangle: if secθ=adjacenthypotenuse=ax, then adjacent = a, hypotenuse = x, so opposite = x2−a2. Therefore cscθ=oppositehypotenuse=x2−a2x. Substituting back:
−a21⋅x2−a2x+C=−a2x2−a2x+C.
Watch outA common mistake is to forget the factor 1/a2 or to misplace the sign. Also, some students try x=asinθ or x=atanθ — those work for x2+a2 or a2−x2 forms, but not here. The form x2−a2 demands sec or cosh.
TipYou can also use the hyperbolic substitution x=acosht, since cosh2t−1=sinh2t. The algebra is similar and yields the same result. The trigonometric route is more common in Indian exams.
✓Final answerThe correct option is (C): −a2x2−a2x+C.
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