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Miscellaneous Exercise 1 · Q135

Q.Inverse of statement pattern (p∨q)→(p∧q)(p \vee q) \to (p \wedge q) is ________.
A) (p∧q)→(p∨q)(p \wedge q) \to (p \vee q)
B) ∼(p∨q)→(p∧q)\sim(p \vee q) \to (p \wedge q)
C) (∼p∧∼q)→(∼p∨∼q)(\sim p \wedge \sim q) \to (\sim p \vee \sim q)
D) (∼p∨∼q)→(∼p∧∼q)(\sim p \vee \sim q) \to (\sim p \wedge \sim q)

Maharashtra MsbshseTextbookSubjectiveImportance★★★★★
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✓ Free question

For a conditional A→BA \to B, the inverse is ∼A→∼B\sim A \to \sim B.

Here A=p∨qA = p \vee q and B=p∧qB = p \wedge q.

∼A=∼(p∨q)≡∼p∧∼q\sim A = \sim(p \vee q) \equiv \sim p \wedge \sim q (De Morgan's law).

∼B=∼(p∧q)≡∼p∨∼q\sim B = \sim(p \wedge q) \equiv \sim p \vee \sim q (De Morgan's law).

So the inverse is (∼p∧∼q)→(∼p∨∼q)(\sim p \wedge \sim q) \to (\sim p \vee \sim q), which is option C.

(Option D, (∼p∨∼q)→(∼p∧∼q)(\sim p \vee \sim q) \to (\sim p \wedge \sim q), is actually the CONTRAPOSITIVE of the original statement, not the inverse — a common mix-up.)

✓Final answer

C) (∼p∧∼q)→(∼p∨∼q)(\sim p \wedge \sim q) \to (\sim p \vee \sim q)

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