Q.If A and B are such events that P(A)>0 and P(B)=1, then P(A′∣B′) equals
(A) 1−P(A∣B)
(B) 1−P(A′∣B)
(C) P(B′)1−P(A∪B)
(D) P(B′)P(A′)
🔒You're viewing a preview — the full solution, concept, methods & PYQ mapping are locked.
🔒 Start your 14-day free trial to unlock the full solution →Concept understanding — Probability Complement Rule
The Probability Complement Rule
Every event A splits the sample space in two: outcomes where A happens, and outcomes where it does not. The second group is the complement of A, written A′ (also Ac or Aˉ). Because exactly one of the two must occur, their probabilities together fill the whole space:
P(A)+P(A′)=1⟹P(A′)=1−P(A).
That is the complement rule: the probability that A does not happen is 1 minus the probability that it does.
Why It Holds
A and A′ are mutually exclusive (no outcome lies in both) and exhaustive (together they are the entire sample space S, with P(S)=1). So P(A)+P(A′)=P(S)=1, and rearranging gives the rule.
A Simple Example
For a fair die, P(six)=61, so P(not six)=1−61=65.
Why It Is So Useful: the "At Least One" Trick
Counting "at least one" directly often means adding many separate cases, while its complement, "none," is a single easy case. For instance, the probability of at least one head in three tosses of a fair coin:
P(at least one head)=1−P(no heads)=1−(21)3=1−81=87.
Computing "no heads" once is far quicker than summing the one-head, two-head and three-head cases separately. …
Concept: Probability Complement Rule and conditional probability.
We start with the definition of conditional probability:
P(A′∣B′)=P(B′)P(A′∩B′)
Since A′∩B′=(A∪B)′, we have:
P(A′∣B′)=P(B′)P((A∪B)′)=P(B′)1−P(A∪B) …
The key idea is to use the definition of conditional probability and the complement rule. The correct expression for P(A′∣B′) is P(B′)1−P(A∪B), which corresponds to option (C).
Why the Complement Rule is the Right Lens
When you see P(A′∣B′), your first instinct might be to reach for 1−P(A∣B) — but that’s a trap. Conditional probability doesn’t distribute over complements the way unconditional probability does. The complement rule for conditional probability is:
P(A′∣B′)=1−P(A∣B′)
not 1−P(A∣B). That subtle shift in the condition is everything.
So the cleanest path is to start from the definition of conditional probability, rewrite the numerator using set algebra, and simplify.
Step-by-Step Derivation
1. Write the definition.
For any two events X and Y with P(Y)>0:
P(X∣Y)=P(Y)P(X∩Y)
Here X=A′ and Y=B′, so:
P(A′∣B′)=P(B′)P(A′∩B′)
2. Express the intersection using De Morgan’s law.
A′∩B′ is the complement of A∪B:
A′∩B′=(A∪B)′
Therefore:
P(A′∩B′)=P((A∪B)′)=1−P(A∪B)
3. Substitute back.
P(A′∣B′)=P(B′)1−P(A∪B)
That’s exactly option (C).
A common mistake is to think P(A′∣B′)=1−P(A∣B). This is false because the condition changes from B to B′. Always check: the complement rule for conditional probability is P(A′∣C)=1−P(A∣C) only when the condition C stays the same.
4. Check why the other options fail. …
Method: Deriving a conditional-probability identity
For "which expression equals P(A′∣B′)" questions, derive the identity from first principles rather than guessing.
Steps
Step 1: Start from the definition.
P(A′∣B′)=P(B′)P(A′∩B′).
Step 2: Rewrite the numerator with De Morgan.
A′∩B′=(A∪B)′, so P(A′∩B′)=1−P(A∪B).
Step 3: Assemble and reject the traps.
P(A′∣B′)=P(B′)1−P(A∪B). …
Common Mistakes
Mistake 1: Choosing 1−P(A∣B).
Why it's wrong: the complement rule for conditionals keeps the condition fixed — P(A′∣C)=1−P(A∣C) — but here the condition is B′, not B. Correct approach: derive from the definition with condition B′.
Mistake 2: Choosing P(B′)P(A′). …
Showing the 12 most recent of 18 on this concept.
- AP EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-04-AN1 markMCQQ.For two events A and B, a true statement among the following is (A) P(Aˉ∪Bˉ)=1−P(A)P(AB) (B) P(Aˉ∪Bˉ)=1−P(A∪B) (C) P(Aˉ∪Bˉ)=P(A∪B) (D) P(Aˉ∪Bˉ)=P(Aˉ)+P(Bˉ)
›Reveal solutionSolution
De Morgan's law gives P(Aˉ∪Bˉ)=1−P(A∩B), and since P(A∩B)=P(A)P(B∣A) always (definition of conditional probability), option (A) is the universally true statement.
Concept and Intuition
Aˉ∪Bˉ is the complement of A∩B (De Morgan's law: A∩B=Aˉ∪Bˉ). So P(Aˉ∪Bˉ)=1−P(A∩B) always holds, regardless of independence. The multiplication rule P(A∩B)=P(A)P(B∣A) is also always true by definition of conditional probability.
Step-by-Step Solution
- By De Morgan's law: Aˉ∪Bˉ=A∩B, so P(Aˉ∪Bˉ)=1−P(A∩B).
- By definition of conditional probability, P(B∣A)=P(A)P(A∩B), so P(A∩B)=P(A)P(B∣A).
- Substituting: P(Aˉ∪Bˉ)=1−P(A)P(B/A) — this is option (A), and it holds for ANY events A, B. …
- AP EAPCET 2021Set eng-2021-08-23-AN1 markMCQQ.The probability for a contractor to get a road contract is 92 and to get a building contract is 95. if the probability to get both the contract is 61 then what is the probability to get neither of these two contracts? (A) 97 (B) 94 (C) 187 (D) 184
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests the addition rule for probability and the complement rule. The answer is 187.
Concept and Intuition
"Neither" is the complement of "at least one", i.e. 1−P(A∪B). First find P(A∪B) using the inclusion-exclusion formula P(A∪B)=P(A)+P(B)−P(A∩B), then subtract from 1.
Step-by-Step Solution
- P(A)=92 (road), P(B)=95 (building), P(A∩B)=61 (both).
- P(A∪B)=92+95−61=97−61.
- Common denominator 18: 97=1814, 61=183, so P(A∪B)=1814−3=1811. …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-20-AN1 markMCQQ.Two natural numbers are chosen at random from 1 to 100 and are multiplied. If A is the event that the product is an even number and B is the event that the product is divisible by 4, then P(A∩Bˉ)= (A) 19825 (B) 19849 (C) 9925 (D) 9950
›Reveal solutionSolution
Split 1–100 by 2-adic valuation (odd / ≡2mod4 / divisible by 4); the event 'even but not divisible by 4' happens only for an odd–(≡2mod4) pair. Probability is 25/99.
Concept and Intuition
Whether a product of two numbers is divisible by 4 depends on the total power of 2 across both factors. Splitting the range into three classes by how many factors of 2 each number contributes (0, exactly 1, or ≥2) turns this into simple counting.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Among 1–100: odd numbers (0 factors of 2) — 50 of them. Numbers ≡2(mod4) (exactly 1 factor of 2, e.g. 2,6,10,...,98) — 25 of them. Numbers divisible by 4 (at least 2 factors of 2) — 25 of them.
- Two distinct numbers are chosen (without replacement) from 1–100; total ways =(2100)=4950.
- Event A∩Bˉ = product is even AND not divisible by 4, i.e. the total power of 2 across the two numbers is exactly 1.
- This happens only when one number is odd (0 power) and the other is ≡2(mod4) (exactly 1 power) — any other combination gives total power 0 (both odd, not in A) or ≥2 (one or both contribute ≥1 in a way that sums to ≥2, landing in B). …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-26-FN1 markMCQQ.Two candidates A and B have attended an interview conducted by a recruitment board for two jobs. If the probability that candidate A will get the job is 0.8 and the probability that candidate B will get the job is 0.7, then the probability that atleast one of them will get the job is (A) 0.96 (B) 0.94 (C) 0.92 (D) 0.9
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests the complement rule for "at least one" events with two independent trials. Answer: 0.94.
Concept and Intuition
When two events are independent, the easiest way to find P(at least one occurs) is to compute the probability that neither occurs (multiply the individual "failure" probabilities) and subtract from 1.
Step-by-Step Solution
- P(A gets job)=0.8⇒P(A doesn’t)=0.2.
- P(B gets job)=0.7⇒P(B doesn’t)=0.3.
- Assuming independence, P(neither gets the job)=0.2×0.3=0.06.
- P(at least one gets the job)=1−0.06=0.94.
Common Mistakes …
- AP EAPCET 2024Set eng-2024-05-23-FN1 markMCQQ.The probability that A speaks truth is 75% and the probability that B speaks truth is 80%. The probability that they contradict each other when asked to speak on a fact is (A) 203 (B) 204 (C) 207 (D) 205
›Reveal solutionSolution
"Contradiction" means exactly one of A, B tells the truth; summing the two mutually exclusive cases gives 207.
Concept and Intuition
A and B "contradict" each other exactly when one speaks truth and the other lies (if both tell the truth or both lie, they'd agree, not contradict). These are two independent, mutually exclusive scenarios whose probabilities add.
Step-by-Step Solution
- P(A true)=0.75, so P(A false)=0.25.
- P(B true)=0.80, so P(B false)=0.20.
- Contradiction case 1: A true, B false: 0.75×0.20=0.15.
- Contradiction case 2: A false, B true: 0.25×0.80=0.20. …
- AP EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-04-AN1 markMCQQ.In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked randomly. The probability that it is neither red nor green is (A) 1/3 (B) 3/4 (C) 7/19 (D) 8/21
›Reveal solutionSolution
"Neither red nor green" simply means "blue"; the probability is just the blue count over the total count.
Concept and Intuition
For a simple random draw from a finite set with equally likely outcomes, the probability of an event equals the count of favourable outcomes divided by the total count.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Total balls =8 (red)+7 (blue)+6 (green)=21.
- The complement of "red or green" among these three categories is simply "blue" (since every ball is one of the three colours).
- Number of blue balls =7.
- P(blue)=217=31.
Common Mistakes …
- AP EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-07-AN1 markMCQQ.A bag contains 3 white, 2 blue and 5 red balls. One ball is drawn at random from this bag. Then, the probability that the ball drawn is not red is (A) 3/10 (B) 1/5 (C) 1/2 (D) 4/5
›Reveal solutionSolution
"Not red" simply means white or blue; count those and divide by the total.
Concept and Intuition
For equally likely outcomes, probability is favourable outcomes over total outcomes — here "not red" is the complement of "red" within the same sample space.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Total balls =3 white+2 blue+5 red=10.
- Not-red balls =3+2=5.
- P(not red)=105=21.
Common Mistakes …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-22-FN1 markMCQQ.U1,U2,U3 are three urns. U1 contains 5 red, 3 white, 2 black balls; U2 contains 4 red, 4 white, 2 black balls and U3 contains 3 red, 4 white, 3 black balls. If a ball is chosen at random from an urn chosen at random, then the probability of not getting a black ball is (A) 307 (B) 3023 (C) 52 (D) 3011
›Reveal solutionSolution
Use the Law of Total Probability, averaging the "not black" probability over the three equally likely urns. Answer: 3023.
Concept and Intuition
This is a two-stage random experiment: first an urn is picked (uniformly at random among the three), then a ball is drawn from that urn. The overall probability of an event is the weighted average of its probability conditional on each urn, weighted by the probability of picking that urn — this is exactly the Law of Total Probability.
Step-by-Step Solution
- Each urn is equally likely to be chosen: P(U1)=P(U2)=P(U3)=31.
- Totals per urn: U1 has 5+3+2=10 balls, U2 has 4+4+2=10 balls, U3 has 3+4+3=10 balls.
- Probability of NOT drawing black from each urn:
P(not black∣U1)=105+3=108
P(not black∣U2)=104+4=108
P(not black∣U3)=103+4=107
- By the Law of Total Probability: …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-23-FN1 markMCQQ.In a shoe rack there are 4 pairs of shoes and 4 shoes are drawn one after the other at random without replacement. Then the probability of getting atleast one correct pair of shoes among the four shoes drawn is (A) 358 (B) 3527 (C) 16801679 (D) 16801
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests complementary counting for "at least one" events. Answer: 27/35.
Concept and Intuition
"At least one correct pair" is hard to count directly (could be exactly 1 pair, or 2 pairs), but its complement — "no correct pair at all" — is very restrictive and easy to count. With exactly 4 pairs and 4 shoes drawn, avoiding any complete pair forces one shoe from every single pair (there's no pair left over to skip).
Step-by-Step Solution
- Total ways to choose 4 shoes out of 8: (48)=70.
- Count the complement: no pair among the 4 drawn is a matched (left+right) pair. Since there are exactly 4 pairs and we draw exactly 4 shoes, "no complete pair" means each of the 4 pairs contributes exactly one shoe (if any pair contributed 0 shoes, another would have to contribute 2, forming a complete pair — contradiction).
- For each of the 4 pairs, there are 2 choices (which shoe of that pair to include), giving 24=16 ways with no complete pair. …
- AP EAPCET 2023Set eng-2023-05-18-FN1 markMCQQ.The probability that a person chosen at random is left handed (in hand writing) is 0.1. Then the probability that in a group of 10 people there is a left handed person is (A) (0.9)9 (B) (0.9)8 (C) (0.9)6 (D) 0.9
›Reveal solutionSolution
This is a binomial "exactly one success" computation; the factor of 10×0.1 conveniently equals 1, leaving a clean power of 0.9.
Concept and Intuition
With X∼B(10,0.1) counting left-handed people in the group, P(X=1)=(110)(0.1)(0.9)9. The combinatorial factor 10 exactly cancels the 0.1, collapsing the whole expression to a pure power of 0.9 — which is exactly the pattern the answer choices are built around.
Step-by-Step Solution
- X∼B(n=10,p=0.1).
- P(X=1)=(110)(0.1)1(0.9)9. …
- AP EAPCET 2025Set eng-2025-05-27-FN1 markMCQQ.Two students appeared simultaneously for an entrance exam. If the probability that the first student gets qualified in the exam is 41 and the probability that the second student gets qualified in the same exam is 52, then the probability that atleast one of them gets qualified in that exam is (A) 101 (B) 207 (C) 106 (D) 2011
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests the complement rule for "at least one" probability with two independent events. The probability at least one student qualifies is 2011.
Concept and Intuition
When asked for P(at least one of several independent events occurs), it is almost always easiest to compute the complement — the probability that none occur — and subtract from 1, since "none occur" for independent events is just the product of each event's complement probability.
Step-by-Step Solution
- P(student 1 qualifies)=41⇒P(student 1 fails)=43.
- P(student 2 qualifies)=52⇒P(student 2 fails)=53.
- Assuming independence, P(neither qualifies)=43×53=209. …
- AP EAPCET 2022Set eng-2022-07-04-FN1 markMCQQ.In a lottery, containing 35 tickets, exactly 10 tickets bear a prize. If a ticket is drawn at random, then the probability of not getting a prize is. (A) 1/10 (B) 2/5 (C) 2/7 (D) 5/7
›Reveal solutionSolution
This tests basic classical probability: favourable outcomes over total outcomes for a single random draw. The probability of not winning is 75.
Concept and Intuition
For a single random draw from a finite set with equally likely outcomes, the probability of an event is simply the count of outcomes satisfying that event divided by the total count. Here the event is "drawing a non-prize ticket".
Step-by-Step Solution
- Total tickets =35; prize-bearing tickets =10.
- Non-prize tickets =35−10=25.
- P(not getting a prize)=3525. …
🎓Unlock everything free for 14 days
- ✓Full step-by-step solutions
- ✓Concept-first explanations
- ✓Methods, shortcuts & mistakes
- ✓PYQ mapping + timed mock tests
Full access for 14 days. No credit card required.