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Q.An alpha particle is projected with velocity v⃗=(3.0×105 m/s)i^\vec{v} = (3.0\times10^{5}\ \text{m/s})\hat{i} into a region in which magnetic field B⃗=[(0.4 T)i^+(0.3 T)j^]\vec{B} = [(0.4\ \text{T})\hat{i} + (0.3\ \text{T})\hat{j}] exists. Calculate the acceleration of the particle in the region. i^\hat{i}, j^\hat{j} and k^\hat{k} are unit vectors along the x, y and z axes respectively and the charge-to-mass ratio for the alpha particle is 4.8×107 C/kg4.8\times10^{7}\ \text{C/kg}.

CBSECBSE Class XII Board 2023Subjective· 2mImportance★★★★★
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The acceleration is found from the Lorentz force: F⃗=q(v⃗×B⃗)\vec{F} = q(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}), then a⃗=F⃗/m\vec{a} = \vec{F}/m. Only the j^\hat{j} component of B⃗\vec{B} matters because v⃗\vec{v} is along i^\hat{i}. The result is a⃗=(4.32×1012 m/s2) k^\vec{a} = (4.32 \times 10^{12}\ \text{m/s}^2)\,\hat{k}.

The core idea here is that a charged particle moving in a magnetic field experiences a force perpendicular to both its velocity and the field. That force causes acceleration, but not in the direction of motion — it’s a centripetal-like deflection. The charge-to-mass ratio is given, so we can go straight from force per unit charge to acceleration.

Why only the j^\hat{j} component of B⃗\vec{B} matters?

The velocity is purely along i^\hat{i}. In the cross product v⃗×B⃗\vec{v} \times \vec{B}, the i^\hat{i} component of B⃗\vec{B} is parallel to v⃗\vec{v}, so it contributes nothing. Only the j^\hat{j} and k^\hat{k} components of B⃗\vec{B} can produce a force. Here B⃗\vec{B} has no k^\hat{k} component, so only the j^\hat{j} part survives.

Let’s work it through.

  1. Write the given data clearly

    v⃗=(3.0×105 m/s) i^\vec{v} = (3.0 \times 10^5\ \text{m/s})\,\hat{i}

    B⃗=0.4 i^+0.3 j^\vec{B} = 0.4\,\hat{i} + 0.3\,\hat{j} (in tesla)

    Charge-to-mass ratio: qm=4.8×107 C/kg\frac{q}{m} = 4.8 \times 10^7\ \text{C/kg}

    The particle is an alpha particle (charge +2e+2e, mass 44 amu), but we don’t need those numbers — the ratio is already supplied.

  2. Compute the magnetic force

    The Lorentz force (only magnetic, since no electric field is mentioned) is

F⃗=q(v⃗×B⃗)\vec{F} = q(\vec{v} \times \vec{B})

The cross product:

v⃗×B⃗=∣i^j^k^3.0×105000.40.30∣\vec{v} \times \vec{B} = \begin{vmatrix} \hat{i} & \hat{j} & \hat{k} \\ 3.0\times10^5 & 0 & 0 \\ 0.4 & 0.3 & 0 \end{vmatrix}

Expanding:

i^\hat{i}-component: (0)(0)−(0)(0.3)=0(0)(0) - (0)(0.3) = 0

j^\hat{j}-component: (0)(0.4)−(3.0×105)(0)=0(0)(0.4) - (3.0\times10^5)(0) = 0

k^\hat{k}-component: (3.0×105)(0.3)−(0)(0.4)=9.0×104(3.0\times10^5)(0.3) - (0)(0.4) = 9.0\times10^4

So v⃗×B⃗=(9.0×104 m/s⋅T) k^\vec{v} \times \vec{B} = (9.0 \times 10^4\ \text{m/s}\cdot\text{T})\,\hat{k}.

Tip

A quick check: i^×j^=k^\hat{i} \times \hat{j} = \hat{k}, and here vxBy=(3.0×105)(0.3)=9.0×104v_x B_y = (3.0\times10^5)(0.3) = 9.0\times10^4, so the result is immediate without the determinant.

  1. Find the acceleration From Newton’s second law: a⃗=F⃗m=qm(v⃗×B⃗)\vec{a} = \frac{\vec{F}}{m} = \frac{q}{m} (\vec{v} \times \vec{B}) Substitute: …

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