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Miscellaneous Exercise 2(II) · Q110

Q.If the curves ax2+by2=1ax^2 + by^2 = 1 and a′x2+b′y2=1a'x^2 + b'y^2 = 1 intersect orthogonally, then prove that 1a−1b=1a′−1b′\dfrac{1}{a} - \dfrac{1}{b} = \dfrac{1}{a'} - \dfrac{1}{b'}.

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✓ Free question

At a common point (x,y)(x,y), differentiating each curve implicitly gives slopes m1=−axbym_1=-\dfrac{ax}{by} and m2=−a′xb′ym_2=-\dfrac{a'x}{b'y}.

Orthogonal intersection: m1m2=−1⇒aa′x2bb′y2=−1⇒aa′x2+bb′y2=0m_1m_2=-1 \Rightarrow \dfrac{aa'x^2}{bb'y^2}=-1 \Rightarrow aa'x^2+bb'y^2=0 ... (*)

From the two curve equations, solving the linear system ax2+by2=1ax^2+by^2=1, a′x2+b′y2=1a'x^2+b'y^2=1 for x2,y2x^2,y^2 (Cramer's rule) with D=ab′−a′bD=ab'-a'b:

x2=b′−bDx^2=\dfrac{b'-b}{D}, y2=a−a′D\quad y^2=\dfrac{a-a'}{D}

Substituting into (*): aa′(b′−b)+bb′(a−a′)=0aa'(b'-b)+bb'(a-a')=0, i.e. aa′b′−aa′b+abb′−a′bb′=0aa'b'-aa'b+abb'-a'bb'=0.

Dividing throughout by aa′bb′aa'bb': 1b−1b′+1a′−1a=0\dfrac1b-\dfrac1{b'}+\dfrac1{a'}-\dfrac1a=0, which rearranges to 1a−1b=1a′−1b′\dfrac1a-\dfrac1b=\dfrac1{a'}-\dfrac1{b'}.

✓Final answer

Proved: 1a−1b=1a′−1b′\dfrac1a-\dfrac1b=\dfrac1{a'}-\dfrac1{b'}

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