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Miscellaneous Exercise 3 · Q138

Q.If cos⁡−1x+cos⁡−1y+cos⁡−1z=π\cos^{-1}x + \cos^{-1}y + \cos^{-1}z = \pi then show that x2+y2+z2+2xyz=1x^2 + y^2 + z^2 + 2xyz = 1.

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cos⁡−1x+cos⁡−1y=π−cos⁡−1z\cos^{-1}x+\cos^{-1}y=\pi-\cos^{-1}z. Taking cosine of both sides: cos⁡(cos⁡−1x+cos⁡−1y)=cos⁡(π−cos⁡−1z)=−cos⁡(cos⁡−1z)=−z\cos(\cos^{-1}x+\cos^{-1}y)=\cos(\pi-\cos^{-1}z)=-\cos(\cos^{-1}z)=-z. L.H.S.: xy−1−x21−y2=−z  ⟹  xy+z=1−x21−y2xy-\sqrt{1-x^2}\sqrt{1-y^2}=-z\implies xy+z=\sqrt{1-x^2}\sqrt{1-y^2}. Squaring both sides: $(xy+z)^2=(1-x^2)(1-y^2)\implies x^2y^2+ …

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